Nursing Elites

1. When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), how many hours should you be nitrate-free each day?

• A. 1-2 hours
• B. 5-10 hours
• C. 3-4 hours
• D. 10-12 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), it should be applied for 10-12 hours per day to ensure its effectiveness. A nitrate-free period within the day is essential to prevent the development of tolerance to the medication.

2. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

3. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. Which of the following medications, when used concurrently with Digoxin, places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Verapamil
• C. Warfarin
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to Digoxin toxicity. When these medications are used together, the client is at an increased risk. Phenytoin (Choice A) does not significantly impact digoxin levels. Warfarin (Choice C) and aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is Verapamil (Choice B) due to its potential to raise digoxin levels and cause toxicity.

5. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Rinse your mouth after each use of this medication.
• B. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin B12 while taking this medication.
• D. You can take the medication as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Beclomethasone is to rinse the mouth after each use to reduce the risk of oral fungal infection. Beclomethasone is a corticosteroid inhaler that can increase the risk of oral thrush, so rinsing the mouth helps minimize this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to limit fluid intake while taking Beclomethasone. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase vitamin B12 intake with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because Beclomethasone should be taken as prescribed, not as needed.

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