Nursing Elites

1. A client with increased liver enzymes is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glucosamine
• B. Saw palmetto
• C. Kava
• D. St. John's wort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should report kava to the provider because chronic use or high doses of kava can lead to liver damage, including severe liver failure. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant about any herbal supplement that could potentially worsen the client's liver condition.

2. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Mexiletine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Quinidine
• D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

3. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating large amounts of green leafy vegetables.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. I will report any signs of bleeding to my provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, not potassium. Therefore, the client needs to be cautious with foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables, rather than foods high in potassium. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements regarding Warfarin therapy and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

4. A client is to receive Tetracaine before a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
• B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
• C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. Tetracaine can affect the gag reflex, so it is important to prevent aspiration by maintaining the client NPO until the pharyngeal response is normal, which typically takes about 1 hour. Monitoring for the return of the gag reflex is crucial to prevent complications from aspiration during the first oral intake after the procedure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the effects of Tetracaine or the bronchoscopy procedure.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
• C. Expect to have increased urination.
• D. Take the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. The client should monitor for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, and report them promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of Clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as taking Clopidogrel with an antacid may reduce its effectiveness.

Similar Questions