a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for prednisone which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum glucose. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring serum glucose levels is essential to assess for elevated blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Prednisone does not directly affect potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.

2. A client has a new prescription for Etravirine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching the client is to take Etravirine at the same time every day. This ensures consistent blood levels and effectiveness of the medication. Consistent timing is essential to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and avoid missing doses. Choices A and B are incorrect because Etravirine should not necessarily be taken with or without food; it is more important to take it consistently. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to take Etravirine at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

3. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This situation can result in increased drug levels in the body, causing drowsiness and other side effects. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary to prevent such adverse effects in older adult clients. Choice A, reduced cardiac function, is not directly related to the metabolism of the medication and is unlikely to cause drowsiness. Choice B, first-pass effect, refers to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before it enters circulation, but it is not the cause of drowsiness in this scenario. Choice D, increased gastric motility, does not play a significant role in the metabolism of the medication and is not a likely cause of the client's drowsiness.

5. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Metoprolol, a medication used to treat hypertension, is to avoid sudden changes in position. Metoprolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down to standing up, leading to dizziness and falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and promotes safety.

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