ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Pain level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.
2. A nurse is evaluating teaching for a client who has Rheumatoid Arthritis and a new prescription for Methotrexate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will be sure to return to the clinic at least once a year to have my blood drawn while I'm taking methotrexate.
- B. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. I'll let the doctor know if I develop sores in my mouth while taking this medication.
- D. I should stop taking oral contraceptives while I'm taking methotrexate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ulcerations in the mouth, tongue, or throat are often the first signs of methotrexate toxicity and should be reported to the provider immediately.
3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. What instruction should be included by the nurse during discharge?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid sun exposure.
- D. Limit fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase intake of foods high in potassium. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. Increasing the intake of foods rich in potassium can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination. Choice C is irrelevant to the medication. Choice D is also incorrect as Furosemide is a diuretic and may require increased, not limited, fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
4. A client with osteoporosis has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with a meal.
- B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with a glass of juice.
- D. Take the medication with milk or food.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking alendronate is to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after administration. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure the medication reaches the stomach properly. Remaining upright reduces the risk of side effects such as esophagitis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as alendronate should not be taken with a meal, juice, milk, or food to optimize its absorption and effectiveness.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.
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