Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Pain level
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Apples
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Clients prescribed spironolactone should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium. Increased potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of spironolactone.

4. When caring for a client with a wound infection, which action should the nurse perform first in the plan of care?

• A. Administer antibiotic medication.
• B. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• C. Review WBC laboratory findings.
• D. Apply a dressing to the wound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to obtain a wound specimen for culture before initiating antibiotic therapy. This step is crucial to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic treatment. Reviewing WBC laboratory findings and applying a wound dressing are important steps, but obtaining a wound specimen for culture takes precedence as it guides appropriate antibiotic therapy by identifying the causative organism.

5. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication will stop my contractions.
• B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
• C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
• D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.

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