a nurse is preparing to administer an iv bolus of morphine to a client for pain management which of the following assessments is the nurses priority
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.

2. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.

3. Why does a nurse on an oncology unit verify a client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin before administering it to a client with breast cancer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verifying the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin is necessary because excessive amounts of the medication can lead to cardiomyopathy, a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect. By monitoring the cumulative dose, healthcare providers can help prevent cardiotoxicity and ensure patient safety during treatment.

4. A client is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking aspirin along with Warfarin can increase the risk of bleeding. Clients should be advised to avoid medications that increase the risk of bleeding when taking Warfarin to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements indicating good understanding of Warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in Vitamin K, using an electric razor to prevent cuts that can lead to bleeding, and regular blood testing to monitor Warfarin levels are all important aspects of managing Warfarin therapy.

5. Which adverse reaction poses the greatest life-threatening risk when taking Omeprazole?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most life-threatening adverse reaction associated with Omeprazole is Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. This condition can be severe and life-threatening due to the potential for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and complications such as toxic megacolon. Chest pain, constipation, and acute interstitial nephritis are potential side effects of Omeprazole but are not considered as life-threatening as Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. Monitoring for signs of this adverse reaction is crucial, and immediate medical attention should be sought if symptoms develop.

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