Nursing Elites

1. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

• A. 45 minutes to 18 hours
• B. 30 minutes to 12 hours
• C. 90 minutes to 36 hours
• D. 60 minutes to 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

2. When teaching a client with a prescription for Vancomycin, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Expect red man syndrome during treatment.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Monitor for hearing loss while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Therefore, it is important for clients to monitor for any changes in their hearing while taking this medication and promptly report any issues to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because red man syndrome is associated with rapid infusion of Vancomycin, not a common side effect during treatment; taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications but not specific to Vancomycin; and increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to Vancomycin therapy.

3. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You will need to have your blood tested regularly while taking this medication.
• B. It is safe to take over-the-counter NSAIDs with this medication.
• C. You will need to avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
• D. You will need to take this medication with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, so clients should be instructed to avoid foods high in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. It is important to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to keep the medication working effectively. Therefore, the correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is to advise the client to avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking Warfarin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Regular blood testing is necessary with Warfarin to monitor its effects and adjust the dosage if needed (Choice A). Taking over-the-counter NSAIDs with Warfarin is not safe due to an increased risk of bleeding (Choice B). Warfarin can be taken with or without food, so there is no specific requirement to take it with food (Choice D).

4. A client is starting therapy with doxorubicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Fatigue
• C. Sore throat
• D. Red urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Doxorubicin is known to have immunosuppressive effects, which can predispose the client to infections. A sore throat can be an early sign of infection, and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hair loss, fatigue, and red urine are common side effects of doxorubicin and are typically expected during therapy. While these side effects should be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting unless they become severe or concerning.

5. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Glucagon
• D. Vitamin B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.

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