ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Increased energy levels
- C. Weight loss
- D. Improved mental clarity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased energy levels are a key indicator of the effectiveness of levothyroxine in treating hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine works to regulate thyroid hormone levels, which can lead to improved energy levels as the body's metabolism is restored. While the other options may also improve with treatment, increased energy levels directly reflect the correction of the thyroid hormone imbalance. Decreased heart rate can be an indicator of overmedication, weight loss can be attributed to increased metabolism but may not directly reflect the effectiveness of levothyroxine, and improved mental clarity is a more general cognitive improvement that may not directly relate to thyroid function.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?
- A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
- B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
- C. A client with a history of hypertension
- D. A client with a history of anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots. The estrogenic effects of tamoxifen can further increase the risk of thromboembolic events, making it unsafe for individuals with a history of deep-vein thrombosis. Choice B (migraine headaches), Choice C (hypertension), and Choice D (anemia) are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy. Migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not pose the same risk of adverse effects related to blood clot formation as deep-vein thrombosis does.
3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing a client's medications. Which of the following actions should the professional take to follow legal practice guidelines? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Maintain skill competency.
- B. Determine the dosage.
- C. Monitor for adverse effects.
- D. Safeguard medications.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Maintaining skill competency is a critical aspect of legal practice guidelines for healthcare professionals. It is essential to ensure that healthcare professionals are competent and up-to-date with their skills to provide safe and effective care to patients. While determining the dosage, monitoring for adverse effects, and safeguarding medications are important aspects of medication administration, maintaining skill competency is a fundamental legal responsibility that ensures the delivery of quality care. Determining the dosage and monitoring for adverse effects are clinical responsibilities, while safeguarding medications pertains to proper storage and handling, not specifically related to legal practice guidelines.
5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.
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