Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?

• A. Regular insulin
• B. Furosemide
• C. Valproic acid
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.

2. A client has a new prescription for Iron supplements. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with a glass of milk.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with orange juice.
• C. Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.
• D. Expect stools to be bright red.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.' Iron supplements commonly cause constipation as a side effect. Increasing fiber intake can help alleviate this issue by promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation. Choice A is incorrect as iron absorption is hindered when taken with milk. Choice B is not directly related to iron supplements. Choice D is incorrect as iron supplements do not typically cause bright red stools.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider immediately?

• A. Lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL should be reported to the provider immediately. While a lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range, a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL could suggest early signs of kidney dysfunction, especially concerning in a client on long-term lithium therapy. It is crucial to monitor kidney function closely because lithium can be nephrotoxic over time. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function and should prompt immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Potassium and sodium levels within normal range are not immediate concerns when compared to potential kidney issues.

5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

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