ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?
- A. Regular insulin
- B. Furosemide
- C. Valproic acid
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.
2. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.
3. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?
- A. Seizures
- B. Hypotension
- C. Insomnia
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.
4. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Constipation
- B. Black-colored stools
- C. Staining of teeth
- D. Body secretions turning a red-orange color
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.
5. A client has a new prescription for Levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Expect to see results in 1 week.
- D. Do not discontinue the medication without consulting the provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism is not to discontinue the medication without consulting the provider. Abrupt cessation could lead to the return of hypothyroid symptoms, emphasizing the importance of medical guidance when considering any changes to the treatment plan. Choice A is incorrect because Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, typically in the morning. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the timing of administration for Levothyroxine. Choice C is inaccurate as it usually takes a few weeks for the full effects of Levothyroxine to be seen, not just 1 week.
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