ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?
- A. Regular insulin
- B. Furosemide
- C. Valproic acid
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.
2. A client is taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity?
- A. Light yellow urine
- B. Report of tinnitus
- C. Productive cough
- D. Blue-gray skin discoloration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Blue-gray skin discoloration is a common sign of Amiodarone toxicity, known as blue-gray discoloration, which can affect areas like the face, neck, or hands. It is important to monitor for this side effect, as it can be a visible indicator of potential toxicity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Light yellow urine is not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Tinnitus is not a common manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity. A productive cough is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.
3. A client who is withdrawing from alcohol has been prescribed Propranolol. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
- B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
- C. Decreases cravings.
- D. Results in mild hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct information the nurse should include in the teaching is that Propranolol decreases cravings for alcohol. Propranolol is used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce the desire for alcohol. Choice A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase the risk for seizure activity; it can actually be used to prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures. Choice B is also incorrect as Propranolol does not provide aversion therapy. Choice D is incorrect as Propranolol is not known to result in mild hypertension.
4. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
- B. Take this medication with food.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking aspirin while on Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs can further potentiate this risk, so they should be avoided while taking Clopidogrel to reduce the chance of bleeding complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. There is no specific instruction to take Clopidogrel with food or at bedtime. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to Clopidogrel use.
5. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
- B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.
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