Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?

• A. Regular insulin
• B. Furosemide
• C. Valproic acid
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.

2. A child with Cystic Fibrosis has a new prescription for Acetylcysteine. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Expect this medication to suppress your cough.
• B. Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.
• C. Expect this medication to cause euphoria.
• D. Expect this medication to turn your urine orange.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.' Acetylcysteine contains sulfur, which gives it a characteristic rotten-egg odor. This smell is normal and expected when using this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetylcysteine is not used to suppress cough, cause euphoria, or turn urine orange.

3. What is the therapeutic classification of Furosemide?

• A. Antidiuretics
• B. Diuretics
• C. Anticonvulsants
• D. Antidotes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is classified therapeutically as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications used to promote diuresis, which helps the body get rid of excess salt and water. Furosemide is commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as fluid retention and swelling (edema) associated with congestive heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disorders. Choice A, Antidiuretics, is incorrect as Furosemide acts as a diuretic, promoting the production of urine. Choice C, Anticonvulsants, is also incorrect as Furosemide is not used to treat seizures. Choice D, Antidotes, is incorrect as Furosemide is not an antidote but rather a medication used to treat conditions related to fluid retention.

4. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

5. When a client has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, what adverse effect should they monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Anxiety
• C. Sedation
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can lead to sedation as an adverse effect. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness when taking this medication to prevent any potential harm. Monitoring for sedation is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated with Dextromethorphan use. While some individuals may experience gastrointestinal upset, central nervous system effects like sedation are more commonly observed.

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