Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

• A. Colchicine
• B. Hydroxychloroquine
• C. Auranofin
• D. Duloxetine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Duloxetine. Duloxetine is commonly used to treat fibromyalgia as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. It is also indicated for depression and diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Colchicine, Hydroxychloroquine, and Auranofin are not typically prescribed for fibromyalgia. Colchicine is primarily used to treat gout, Hydroxychloroquine for conditions like malaria and rheumatoid arthritis, and Auranofin for rheumatoid arthritis.

3. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Absolute neutrophil count
• C. Platelet count
• D. Total white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the platelet count to determine the effectiveness of Oprelvekin. The expected outcome for this medication is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Oprelvekin is a medication used to stimulate platelet production, making platelet count a crucial parameter to assess its effectiveness. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not specifically related to the action or effectiveness of Oprelvekin.

4. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.

5. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which finding should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxic effects such as bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any significant decreases, as this could indicate Digoxin toxicity and prompt further intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia, not hypertension, hypoglycemia, or hypercalcemia.

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