Nursing Elites

1. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, what is important to monitor for?

• A. Intake and output
• B. Mental status changes
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a Serotonin Antagonist, monitoring mental status changes is crucial. Serotonin Antagonists can affect neurological function, potentially leading to alterations in mental status. It is essential to assess for any changes in behavior, mood, or cognition to ensure patient safety and prompt intervention if needed.

2. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count.

3. A client has a new prescription for Phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin can lead to gingival hyperplasia, making oral hygiene crucial to prevent complications. Encouraging good oral care practices helps reduce the risk of adverse effects on the gums and teeth. Avoiding grapefruit juice is not specifically related to Phenytoin. While some medications require intake with food, Phenytoin is usually taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly associated with Phenytoin therapy.

4. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
• B. Take the medication 1 hour before planning to go to sleep.
• C. Allow at least 6 hours for sleep when taking zolpidem.
• D. Do not take zolpidem with a bedtime snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified as Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is important for the client to inform the provider if they plan to become pregnant because the medication may need to be adjusted or changed to ensure the safety of the fetus. This communication allows for appropriate monitoring and adjustments to be made to the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as zolpidem is a short-acting medication, and it does not require a full 6 hours for sleep. Choice D is incorrect because zolpidem can be taken with or without food, so taking it with a bedtime snack is not contraindicated.

5. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Furosemide
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

Similar Questions