Nursing Elites

1. A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Blocks hormone receptors
• B. Increases immune response
• C. Binds with specific antigens on tumor cells
• D. Stops DNA replication during cell division

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.

2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
• B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 22 gtt/min
• B. 24 gtt/min
• C. 20 gtt/min
• D. 18 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Thus, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect because it miscalculates the flow rate. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min, are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the flow rate based on the given information.

4. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application.
• B. Avoid blinking immediately after instilling the drops.
• C. Keep your eyes closed for 5 minutes after application.
• D. Administer the drops directly onto the cornea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.

5. A client is to receive Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns.
• B. Monitor the insertion site for a hematoma.
• C. Palpate the bladder to detect urinary retention.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest for 12 hours following the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. This is important to prevent aspiration until the client's normal pharyngeal sensation is restored, typically within about 1 hour after the procedure. Monitoring the insertion site for a hematoma, palpating the bladder, and maintaining the client on bed rest are not directly related to the administration of Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy. Therefore, these actions are not necessary in the immediate post-procedure care of a client receiving Tetracaine for a Bronchoscopy.

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