a nurse is teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of fluphenazine which of the following should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

2. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously at a 45- to 90-degree angle. This angle ensures proper delivery of the medication. Massaging the injection site should be avoided to prevent bruising and possible tissue damage. Aspiration is not required for subcutaneous injections like Enoxaparin. Therefore, the correct action for administering Enoxaparin is to insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle.

4. A client has a new prescription for combination oral NRTIs for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. NRTI antiretroviral medications inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which is essential for HIV replication. By blocking this enzyme, the medications prevent the virus from replicating and spreading. This mechanism of action helps to control the progression of HIV infection in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because NRTIs do not work by preventing protein synthesis, weakening the cell wall of the virus, or blocking HIV entry into cells. These mechanisms are associated with different classes of antiretroviral medications used in HIV treatment.

5. In which of the following cases is Lansoprazole not used?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor mainly used to treat conditions related to the stomach, such as gastritis, peptic ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Thalamus hypertrophy is not a condition that Lansoprazole is indicated for; it is used for gastrointestinal issues and not neurological conditions.

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