a nurse is teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of fluphenazine which of the following should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

2. Which of the following is commonly used to treat migraine headaches?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are often used in the management of migraine headaches due to their ability to help prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of migraines. They work by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, which can help in controlling migraine symptoms. While beta-blockers are also sometimes used in migraine prevention, anti-epileptic drugs are more commonly associated with migraine treatment. Cholinesterase Inhibitors are not typically used for migraine headaches, as they are more commonly associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease. ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, but they are not a first-line treatment for migraines.

3. Which adverse reaction poses the greatest life-threatening risk when taking Omeprazole?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most life-threatening adverse reaction associated with Omeprazole is Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. This condition can be severe and life-threatening due to the potential for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and complications such as toxic megacolon. Chest pain, constipation, and acute interstitial nephritis are potential side effects of Omeprazole but are not considered as life-threatening as Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. Monitoring for signs of this adverse reaction is crucial, and immediate medical attention should be sought if symptoms develop.

4. A client's serum Calcium is 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range. In this case, the appropriate medication to anticipate administering is Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected reference range.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting Warfarin is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding; therefore, it is crucial for the client to watch for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stools, or unusual bleeding from gums or nose. If any of these signs occur, the client should promptly report them to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in vitamin K is related to other medications like Coumadin, increased urination is not a common side effect of Warfarin, and taking Warfarin with an antacid can potentially interfere with its absorption.

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