Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

2. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Decreased respiratory function
• C. Anesthetic
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.

3. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?

• A. Heparin
• B. Insulin
• C. Propranolol
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Relief of headache
• B. Relief of nausea
• C. Relief of abdominal pain
• D. Relief of heartburn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

5. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.

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