Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary use of lithium?

• A. Lower blood glucose
• B. Slow the heart rate
• C. Stabilize mood
• D. Heal ulcers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.

2. A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Blocks hormone receptors
• B. Increases immune response
• C. Binds with specific antigens on tumor cells
• D. Stops DNA replication during cell division

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.

3. A client has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products because calcium can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Instructing the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products will ensure optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods in relation to taking Ciprofloxacin.

4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

5. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

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