ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, monitoring serum glucose levels is essential. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, regular monitoring of serum glucose helps in detecting and managing any potential hyperglycemic effects of the medication. Monitoring serum potassium, calcium, or sodium is not typically required when a client is on Prednisone unless there are specific risk factors or concerns related to these electrolytes.
2. Which of the following is not a known effect of the drug Clozapine?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Antipsychotic
- C. Used for Schizophrenia
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clozapine is associated with side effects like agranulocytosis (a serious blood condition), sedation (not hyperactivity), and is used as an antipsychotic to treat schizophrenia. Hyperactivity is not a typical effect of Clozapine, making it the correct answer in this context.
3. A client with cancer and a prescription for methotrexate PO reports bleeding gums while being assessed by a nurse in a provider's clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Explain to the client that this is an expected adverse effect.
- B. Check the value of the client's current platelet count.
- C. Instruct the client to use an electric toothbrush.
- D. Have the client make an appointment to see the dentist.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on methotrexate reports bleeding gums is to check the client's current platelet count. Bleeding gums may indicate thrombocytopenia, a decreased platelet count which can be a severe side effect of methotrexate therapy. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial for early detection and management of this potentially life-threatening complication. Choice A is incorrect as bleeding gums in this context may not be an expected adverse effect of methotrexate. Choice C is irrelevant and does not address the potential underlying issue of thrombocytopenia. Choice D is not the primary action needed at this point; checking the platelet count is more urgent to assess the severity of the situation.
4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Increased urination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.
5. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?
- A. Glucagon
- B. Aminocaproic acid
- C. Atropine
- D. Penicillamine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.
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