ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?
- A. 6.5 mL
- B. 7 mL
- C. 5 mL
- D. 8 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen per dose to achieve the desired 650 mg dose for pain relief. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the volume required based on the concentration of the liquid acetaminophen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the concentration of the liquid medication and the desired dose.
2. A client has a new prescription for Docusate Sodium. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Expect results within 30 minutes.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Docusate Sodium is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Docusate sodium is a stool softener, and taking it with water helps to soften the stool and make bowel movements easier. Adequate fluid intake is crucial when taking stool softeners to prevent constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because the effects of Docusate Sodium may not be immediate, and it may take a couple of days for the stool softener to work. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take this medication at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because there is no instruction to avoid taking Docusate Sodium with food.
3. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?
- A. Over 1,000 mg
- B. 750 mg
- C. Over 1,500 mg
- D. 150 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.
4. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Sedation
- B. Nasal congestion
- C. Productive cough
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.
5. When assessing a client with chronic Neutropenia receiving Filgrastim, what action should the nurse take to evaluate for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Assess for bone pain.
- B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
- C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
- D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when assessing a client receiving Filgrastim for chronic Neutropenia is to assess for bone pain. Bone pain is a known dose-related adverse effect of Filgrastim. Acetaminophen or opioid analgesics can be used to manage bone pain if necessary. Assessing for other types of pain, lung crackles, or heart murmurs would not be specific to the adverse effects of Filgrastim.
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