Nursing Elites

1. A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmia
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Renal failure
• D. Aplastic anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse and report any significant increases. Choice B, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Hydralazine. Choice C, Hyponatremia, and Choice D, Constipation, are also not typically associated with Hydralazine use.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication undiluted.
• B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
• C. Administer the medication through a central line.
• D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

4. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.

5. A client is undergoing preparation for extensive colorectal surgery. Which of the following oral antibiotics should be administered to suppress normal flora in the GI tract?

• A. Kanamycin
• B. Gentamicin
• C. Neomycin
• D. Tobramycin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neomycin. Neomycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is administered orally before GI surgery to eliminate the normal flora in the large intestine. This helps reduce the risk of postoperative infections by decreasing the bacterial load in the gut. Choices A, B, and D (Kanamycin, Gentamicin, Tobramycin) are not typically used to suppress normal flora in the GI tract before colorectal surgery.

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