Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

2. A client is taking Sucralfate PO for Peptic Ulcer Disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
• B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
• C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
• D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This timing helps to ensure adequate absorption and effectiveness of both medications without compromising therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, and chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing do not address the need for a 2-hour interval between these medications to prevent interference with phenytoin absorption.

3. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
• B. Take the medication 1 hour before planning to go to sleep.
• C. Allow at least 6 hours for sleep when taking zolpidem.
• D. Do not take zolpidem with a bedtime snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified as Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is important for the client to inform the provider if they plan to become pregnant because the medication may need to be adjusted or changed to ensure the safety of the fetus. This communication allows for appropriate monitoring and adjustments to be made to the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as zolpidem is a short-acting medication, and it does not require a full 6 hours for sleep. Choice D is incorrect because zolpidem can be taken with or without food, so taking it with a bedtime snack is not contraindicated.

4. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?

• A. Heparin
• B. Insulin
• C. Propranolol
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Etanercept for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to get my blood drawn periodically while on this medication.'
• B. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.'
• C. I will need to limit my alcohol intake to no more than one drink per week.'
• D. I should self-administer this medication subcutaneously into the muscle.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etanercept can cause bone marrow suppression, so it is important to monitor blood counts regularly.

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