Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

2. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime to reduce drowsiness.
• C. Take this medication in the morning to reduce insomnia.
• D. Avoid sudden changes in position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone is best taken in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, a common side effect of corticosteroids. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning aligns with the goal of minimizing the impact of insomnia, which can disrupt sleep patterns and affect overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Prednisone with food does not primarily focus on preventing nausea; taking it at bedtime does not primarily reduce drowsiness, and avoiding sudden changes in position is not a specific instruction related to Prednisone use for asthma.

3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Apples
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Clients prescribed spironolactone should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium. Increased potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of spironolactone.

4. A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse and report any significant increases, as tachycardia can indicate a severe adverse reaction to the medication. Choice B, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Hydralazine. Choice C, Hyponatremia, and Choice D, Constipation, are also not typically associated with Hydralazine use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Tachycardia.

5. When educating a client prescribed Rifampin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Expect orange discoloration of urine.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you experience itching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Rifampin is to expect orange discoloration of urine. Rifampin is known to cause harmless discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, which is a common side effect of this medication. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected side effect to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Rifampin does not require specific dietary considerations like taking it with food or increasing dairy intake. Furthermore, itching is not a common side effect that would necessitate immediate discontinuation of Rifampin.

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