Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

2. A client is receiving discharge instructions for long-term use of Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Stop taking the medication if you experience swelling.
• B. The provider will monitor your weight regularly.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. You may notice decreased appetite while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because long-term use of Prednisone can lead to weight gain, necessitating regular weight monitoring by the healthcare provider to manage any potential complications. Prednisone often causes fluid retention, leading to weight gain, hence the need for weight monitoring. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because swelling is not a typical reason to stop Prednisone, taking it on an empty stomach is not usually required, and Prednisone commonly increases appetite rather than decreases it.

3. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to cough. Monitoring for a persistent dry cough is crucial as it may indicate the need for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to be monitored as adverse effects.

4. When educating a client starting Simvastatin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take this medication in the evening.
• B. Change positions slowly when rising from a chair.
• C. Maintain a consistent intake of green leafy vegetables.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 L per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Simvastatin in the evening. This timing is important because the body synthesizes the most cholesterol at night. By taking the medication in the evening, its effectiveness is increased, leading to better outcomes for the client.

5. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the nurse tell the client to expect before beginning this medication?

• A. Skin test for allergy to the medication
• B. ECG to rule out cardiac dysrhythmias
• C. Mantoux test to rule out exposure to tuberculosis
• D. Liver function tests to assess risk for medication toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting Calcitonin-salmon, it is important to assess for any potential allergies as anaphylaxis can occur. A skin test is usually conducted to determine if the client is allergic to the medication. The nurse should also inquire about any previous allergies to fish, as Calcitonin-salmon is derived from salmon. Options B, C, and D are not necessary before initiating Calcitonin-salmon therapy. ECG is not directly related to this medication, Mantoux test is used to diagnose tuberculosis, and liver function tests are not specifically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon.

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