Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

2. A client with Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is receiving Streptomycin IM among other antibiotics. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Extremity paresthesias
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Severe constipation
• D. Complex partial seizures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is extremity paresthesias. Streptomycin, used to treat infections like Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, can cause paresthesias in the hands and feet as an adverse effect. Monitoring for this symptom is vital to detect and manage it promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention, severe constipation, and complex partial seizures are not commonly associated adverse effects of Streptomycin.

3. Which of the following conditions is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. CHF
• B. HTN
• C. Nephritis
• D. Hypercalciuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nephritis is not commonly treated with Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is primarily used for managing hypertension (HTN) and congestive heart failure (CHF) by reducing blood pressure and fluid retention. It is not a standard treatment for nephritis, which involves inflammation of the kidneys. Hypercalciuria, characterized by excessive calcium excretion in the urine, is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide either.

4. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. Neutropenia refers to a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important white blood cells in fighting infection. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is essential to detect neutropenia early. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is more commonly associated with diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is an increase in sodium levels, not typically caused by Captopril. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like Captopril.

5. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased fasting blood glucose
• C. Decreased hemoglobin A1C
• D. Decreased polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.

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