Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare professional should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are on Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril primarily affects potassium levels due to its mechanism of action as an ACE inhibitor. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Lisinopril in the same way as potassium.

3. A client is prescribed Ranitidine. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored by the nurse?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Serum creatinine.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ranitidine can potentially lead to blood dyscrasias, necessitating the monitoring of the client's CBC. Checking the CBC can help detect any abnormalities in blood cell counts and assess the client's overall hematologic status during Ranitidine therapy.

4. A client is taking Sucralfate PO for Peptic Ulcer Disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
• B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
• C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
• D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This timing helps to ensure adequate absorption and effectiveness of both medications without compromising therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, and chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing do not address the need for a 2-hour interval between these medications to prevent interference with phenytoin absorption.

5. Before administering lithium to a client with bipolar disorder who has been taking the medication for 1 year, the nurse should check to see that which of the following tests has been completed?

• A. Thyroid hormone assay
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• D. Brain natriuretic peptide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the thyroid hormone assay. Long-term lithium use can result in thyroid dysfunction, making it crucial to monitor the client's thyroid function regularly to detect any abnormalities early and prevent potential complications. Liver function tests (choice B) are not specifically associated with lithium therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (choice C) is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not directly related to lithium therapy. Brain natriuretic peptide (choice D) is a test used to diagnose heart failure and is not relevant to monitoring lithium therapy.

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