ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. When starting therapy with raloxifene, a client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Leg cramps
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hot flashes. When initiating therapy with raloxifene, clients should be advised to monitor for hot flashes as they are a common adverse effect associated with this medication. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of raloxifene due to its action on estrogen receptors. Leg cramps (Choice A), urinary frequency (Choice C), and hair loss (Choice D) are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, monitoring for hot flashes is crucial to manage and address this common side effect appropriately.
2. A client with Schizophrenia is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of snacks to prevent weight loss.
- B. Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.
- C. Be aware of the possibility of mild seizures while taking this medication.
- D. Expect an increase in libido when taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to the client taking Risperidone for Schizophrenia is to notify the provider if they develop breast enlargement. Risperidone can lead to an increase in prolactin levels, causing gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report these manifestations to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing snack intake to prevent weight loss is not a specific concern related to Risperidone. Mild seizures are not a common side effect of Risperidone, so this instruction is unnecessary. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like decreased libido rather than an increase.
3. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping.
- B. Take the medication just before bedtime to promote sleep.
- C. You should take the medication when needed for obsessive urges.
- D. Monitor for weight gain while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Paroxetine, an antidepressant commonly used for OCD, typically takes 1 to 4 weeks before the client experiences the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, informing the client that it may take several weeks before feeling the medication's effects is crucial to manage expectations and ensure compliance with the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because Paroxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its activating effects and may cause insomnia if taken before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because Paroxetine should be taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing obsessive urges. Choice D is incorrect because although weight gain can be a side effect of Paroxetine, it is not a priority instruction compared to the delayed onset of therapeutic effects.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar disorder. The provider should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?
- A. Severe hypertension
- B. Coarse tremors
- C. Constipation
- D. Muscle spasm
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor for this symptom as it indicates a potential overdose of the medication. Severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasms are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity but rather a symptom of hypertensive crisis. Constipation is not a typical sign of Lithium toxicity but could be seen in other conditions. Muscle spasms are not specific to Lithium toxicity but can occur due to various reasons.
5. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?
- A. Spironolactone
- B. Furosemide
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Bumetanide
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.
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