Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Epoetin Alfa. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Platelet count.
• C. Hemoglobin.
• D. Serum potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the drug. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps evaluate the response to Epoetin Alfa treatment and ensures that the client's anemia is being appropriately managed.

2. A client is prescribed Metformin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Creatine kinase
• C. Hemoglobin A1c
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum creatinine. Metformin can potentially cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with impaired renal function. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any adverse effects of Metformin on renal health. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as blood glucose, creatine kinase, and hemoglobin A1c levels are not directly monitored to assess for potential adverse effects of Metformin. Blood glucose monitoring is typically done to assess the efficacy of antidiabetic medications like Metformin, while creatine kinase levels are indicative of muscle damage and hemoglobin A1c reflects long-term blood sugar control.

3. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can lead to severe sedation when administered concurrently with an opioid like Fentanyl due to their additive central nervous system depressant effects. This interaction can potentiate respiratory depression and other CNS effects, increasing the risk of adverse outcomes.

5. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

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