Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Epoetin Alfa. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Platelet count.
• C. Hemoglobin.
• D. Serum potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the drug. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps evaluate the response to Epoetin Alfa treatment and ensures that the client's anemia is being appropriately managed.

2. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Increased TSH level
• B. Decreased ALT level
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

3. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

4. A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thromboembolic stroke
• C. Iron deficiency anemia
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.

5. A client has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The client should be informed that which of the following laboratory tests need to be completed periodically? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Thrombocyte count.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Amylase.
• D. Liver function tests.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valproic acid can lead to thrombocytopenia, making it essential to monitor the client's thrombocyte count periodically. Additionally, valproic acid can cause pancreatitis, necessitating the monitoring of amylase levels. Furthermore, valproic acid carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, requiring regular monitoring of liver function tests.

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