ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Ondansetron
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Promethazine
- D. Lorazepam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.
2. A client is prescribed Ranitidine. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored by the nurse?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Serum creatinine.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ranitidine can potentially lead to blood dyscrasias, necessitating the monitoring of the client's CBC. Checking the CBC can help detect any abnormalities in blood cell counts and assess the client's overall hematologic status during Ranitidine therapy.
3. Phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabeled use for:
- A. Headaches
- B. Cold remedy
- C. Neuropathic pain
- D. Antianxiety
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin, an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant medication, is also used off-label for treating neuropathic pain. While its primary indications are for managing heart rhythm disorders and seizures, it has shown efficacy in managing neuropathic pain, expanding its clinical utility. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as phenytoin is not commonly used for headaches, cold remedies, or antianxiety purposes.
4. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.
5. A client has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase intake of protein-rich foods.
- B. Expect muscle twitching to occur.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to take Levodopa/Carbidopa with food. Taking this medication with food helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Instructing the client to take the medication with food promotes better tolerance and absorption of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein-rich foods is not specifically related to the administration of this medication. Choice B is incorrect as muscle twitching is not a common side effect of Levodopa/Carbidopa. Choice D is incorrect because relief of manifestations may take longer than 24 hours to occur.
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