Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Ondansetron
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Promethazine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.

2. A patient has been taking hydrocodone, an opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken more than the prescribed dose. What should you administer as the antidote if they experience toxicity?

• A. Naloxone
• B. N-acetylcysteine
• C. Atropine
• D. Digoxin immune Fab

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the specific antidote for opioid toxicity. It works by blocking the effects of opioids on the central nervous system, thereby reversing symptoms like respiratory depression and sedation. N-acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, while atropine is indicated for certain types of poisonings. Digoxin immune Fab is used for digoxin toxicity. Therefore, in the case of opioid toxicity due to hydrocodone overdose, naloxone is the appropriate antidote.

3. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the infusion.
• B. Call the provider.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Auscultate breath sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.

4. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
• B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
• C. Expect a persistent cough.
• D. Avoid foods high in fiber.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Atenolol, a beta-blocker, they should monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. It is crucial because if the heart rate is below 60 bpm, the client needs to contact their healthcare provider for further guidance and evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Atenolol does not need to be taken with a high-fat meal, does not typically cause a persistent cough, and there is no need to avoid foods high in fiber when taking this medication.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

• A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
• B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
• C. A client with a history of hypertension
• D. A client with a history of anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots. The estrogenic effects of tamoxifen can further increase the risk of thromboembolic events, making it unsafe for individuals with a history of deep-vein thrombosis. Choice B (migraine headaches), Choice C (hypertension), and Choice D (anemia) are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy. Migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not pose the same risk of adverse effects related to blood clot formation as deep-vein thrombosis does.

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