ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.
2. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?
- A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
- B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
- C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
- D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.
3. A client is taking Paroxetine to treat PTSD and reports teeth grinding at night. Which interventions should the nurse implement to manage Bruxism? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Concurrent administration of buspirone.
- B. Administration of a different SSRI.
- C. Use of a mouth guard.
- D. Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct interventions to manage Bruxism associated with Paroxetine use include A: Concurrent administration of buspirone. Buspirone can help alleviate the side effect of Bruxism. Additionally, C: Use of a mouth guard is recommended to prevent oral damage from teeth grinding. B: Administration of a different SSRI is not necessary since the issue is specific to Paroxetine. D: Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication may be considered in severe cases, but the initial step should be to add buspirone to address the Bruxism caused by Paroxetine.
4. A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid activities that may cause injury.
- C. Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication.
- D. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation is to avoid activities that may cause injury. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding, so it is important to prevent situations that could lead to injury or trauma. Choice A is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically affected by food intake. Choice C is not necessary for all anticoagulant medications, and heart rate monitoring is more relevant for other conditions. Choice D is not directly related to the action of anticoagulants and is not a priority instruction for this medication.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a young adult client with a serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Calcitonin-salmon
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Zoledronic acid
- D. Ibandronate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range, indicating hypocalcemia. Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium, is used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected range in cases of hypocalcemia. It helps correct the deficiency by supplementing calcium in the body.
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