a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for radioactive iodine to treat hyperthyroidism which of the following instructions should t
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ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client has a new prescription for radioactive iodine to treat Hyperthyroidism. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client undergoes radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism, they can emit radiation for a short time. To prevent radiation exposure to others, especially pregnant women, infants, and small children, clients should avoid close contact for about 1 week following therapy. This precaution is essential to protect vulnerable individuals from potential harm. Choice A is incorrect because a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of radioactive iodine treatment. Choice C is incorrect because administering iodine solution using a straw is not a standard practice in this treatment. Choice D is incorrect because taking thyroid replacement medication for 3 weeks after treatment is not a typical instruction associated with radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism.

2. A client has a prescription for Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive perspiration. Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist that stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of muscarinic receptors can lead to excessive perspiration (diaphoresis) due to increased cholinergic activity, affecting sweat glands. Dry mouth, hypertension, and fecal impaction are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is more commonly associated with anticholinergic medications, hypertension can be a result of alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not a direct effect of muscarinic receptor activation.

3. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.

4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of bananas and oranges.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. To prevent this, clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges, to replenish potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting calcium-rich foods or avoiding milk is not necessary with Furosemide, and increasing intake of green, leafy vegetables does not specifically address the potential potassium loss associated with this medication.

5. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

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