Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about managing Digoxin toxicity. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take an extra dose of Digoxin if I miss one.
• B. I should notify my healthcare provider if I experience visual changes.
• C. I will stop taking Digoxin if my heart rate is below 70 bpm.
• D. I should take antacids to alleviate gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual changes, such as yellow or blurred vision, can be indicative of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for clients to inform their healthcare provider promptly if they encounter these symptoms. Prompt medical attention can help manage potential toxicity and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking an extra dose of Digoxin, stopping Digoxin based on heart rate alone, and using antacids for gastrointestinal upset are not appropriate actions when managing Digoxin toxicity.

2. When teaching a client with a prescription for Loperamide for diarrhea, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid activities that require alertness.
• C. Expect abdominal pain and bloating.
• D. Take an additional dose after each loose stool.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include when teaching a client with a prescription for Loperamide is to 'Avoid activities that require alertness.' Loperamide can cause drowsiness, so clients should avoid such activities until they know how the medication affects them.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

4. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.

5. What symptoms should a patient taking Omeprazole report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Black, tarry stools
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients taking Omeprazole should report black, tarry stools, diarrhea, or abdominal pain to the healthcare provider because these symptoms could indicate serious side effects associated with the medication. Black, tarry stools may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding, diarrhea can be a sign of a gastrointestinal infection or adverse drug reaction, and abdominal pain may indicate underlying issues that need attention. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer as all these symptoms are important to report for proper evaluation and management.

Similar Questions