ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about managing Digoxin toxicity. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take an extra dose of Digoxin if I miss one.
- B. I should notify my healthcare provider if I experience visual changes.
- C. I will stop taking Digoxin if my heart rate is below 70 bpm.
- D. I should take antacids to alleviate gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual changes, such as yellow or blurred vision, can be indicative of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for clients to inform their healthcare provider promptly if they encounter these symptoms. Prompt medical attention can help manage potential toxicity and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking an extra dose of Digoxin, stopping Digoxin based on heart rate alone, and using antacids for gastrointestinal upset are not appropriate actions when managing Digoxin toxicity.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.
3. What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?
- A. Liver Failure
- B. Anaphylaxis
- C. Respiratory Depression
- D. Edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur as a serious adverse reaction to penicillin. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Liver failure is not a typical adverse reaction to penicillin, respiratory depression is more commonly associated with opioid medications, and edema is not a common severe adverse reaction to penicillin.
4. A client is being taught by a nurse about long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Weight Gain
- B. Nervousness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of long-term prednisone use. Prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, can cause fluid retention and increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Nervousness (choice B) is more commonly associated with stimulant medications or excessive caffeine intake. Bradycardia (choice C) refers to a slow heart rate and is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone. Constipation (choice D) is not a common side effect of prednisone; in fact, prednisone is more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues such as increased appetite and weight gain.
5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?
- A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
- B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
- C. Blood pressure 134/72
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.
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