ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about managing Digoxin toxicity. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take an extra dose of Digoxin if I miss one.
- B. I should notify my healthcare provider if I experience visual changes.
- C. I will stop taking Digoxin if my heart rate is below 70 bpm.
- D. I should take antacids to alleviate gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual changes, such as yellow or blurred vision, can be indicative of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for clients to inform their healthcare provider promptly if they encounter these symptoms. Prompt medical attention can help manage potential toxicity and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking an extra dose of Digoxin, stopping Digoxin based on heart rate alone, and using antacids for gastrointestinal upset are not appropriate actions when managing Digoxin toxicity.
2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?
- A. Visual disturbances
- B. Dry cough
- C. Confusion
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow vision, can be an early sign of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is crucial to detect and prevent potential adverse effects of digoxin. Dry cough, confusion, and urinary retention are not commonly associated adverse effects of digoxin and are not typically monitored in relation to this medication.
3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for furosemide, a diuretic, is to take it in the morning to prevent nocturia. Taking it in the morning helps to prevent frequent urination during the night, allowing the client to have uninterrupted sleep. This timing also coincides with the body's natural diuretic response, which is typically more active during the day. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding foods high in potassium, taking it on an empty stomach, or limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
4. When teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for Desipramine, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the parents is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Constipation
- B. Suicidal thoughts
- C. Photophobia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is taking Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can lead to an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. The nurse should emphasize to the parents the importance of monitoring the child for any signs of worsening depression or suicidal ideation. Prompt reporting of such symptoms can help prevent harm to the child. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority adverse effects associated with Desipramine. While constipation, photophobia, and dry mouth can occur as side effects of Desipramine, they are not as critical as the risk of suicidal thoughts, which requires immediate attention to ensure the safety of the child.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before obtaining the blood product from the refrigerator.
- B. Obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product.
- C. Take a complete set of vital signs before beginning the transfusion and periodically during the transfusion.
- D. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product. This action is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, which is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product before the transfusion ensures that there are no errors in identification, reducing the risk of a potentially life-threatening reaction. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of transfusion safety but are not directly related to preventing acute hemolytic reactions. Ensuring a patent IV line, monitoring vital signs, and staying with the client are all essential during transfusion but do not specifically address the risk of ABO or Rh incompatibility reactions.
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