Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about managing Digoxin toxicity. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take an extra dose of Digoxin if I miss one.
• B. I should notify my healthcare provider if I experience visual changes.
• C. I will stop taking Digoxin if my heart rate is below 70 bpm.
• D. I should take antacids to alleviate gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual changes, such as yellow or blurred vision, can be indicative of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for clients to inform their healthcare provider promptly if they encounter these symptoms. Prompt medical attention can help manage potential toxicity and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking an extra dose of Digoxin, stopping Digoxin based on heart rate alone, and using antacids for gastrointestinal upset are not appropriate actions when managing Digoxin toxicity.

2. What is the action of Nitroglycerin?

• A. Dilates the Bronchi
• B. Reduces Blood Glucose
• C. Reduces Nausea
• D. Dilates Coronary Arteries

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin acts by dilating the coronary arteries, leading to increased blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart. This helps in relieving angina symptoms by reducing the heart's workload and improving blood supply to the myocardium. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Nitroglycerin's primary action is not related to dilating bronchi, reducing blood glucose, or reducing nausea.

3. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report that can indicate the medication is effective?

• A. Headache
• B. Nausea
• C. Dizziness
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache is a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects. It can indicate that the medication is working effectively by dilating blood vessels, improving blood flow, and reducing cardiac workload. Therefore, the client should report experiencing headaches as it may suggest the therapeutic action of nitroglycerin. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin and should be reported as adverse effects that may necessitate medical attention.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Administer intravenously to prevent injury.
• B. Ensure that the medication is kept refrigerated until just prior to administration.
• C. Do not shake the vial; gently invert it to mix before withdrawing the dose.
• D. Discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Filgrastim, only one dose should be withdrawn from the vial, and the vial should then be discarded to prevent any contamination or errors in dosing. It is crucial not to shake the vial but gently invert it to mix the medication before withdrawing the appropriate dose. Refrigeration is not required for Filgrastim; it should be stored at room temperature until just before administration. Choice A is incorrect because Filgrastim is typically administered subcutaneously, not intravenously. Choice B is incorrect as the medication should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated, until administration. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the vial is not recommended for Filgrastim.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

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