ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about managing Digoxin toxicity. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take an extra dose of Digoxin if I miss one.
- B. I should notify my healthcare provider if I experience visual changes.
- C. I will stop taking Digoxin if my heart rate is below 70 bpm.
- D. I should take antacids to alleviate gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual changes, such as yellow or blurred vision, can be indicative of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for clients to inform their healthcare provider promptly if they encounter these symptoms. Prompt medical attention can help manage potential toxicity and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking an extra dose of Digoxin, stopping Digoxin based on heart rate alone, and using antacids for gastrointestinal upset are not appropriate actions when managing Digoxin toxicity.
2. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? (Select all that apply.)
- A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asks for an Influenza immunization
- B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection
- C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone
- D. A client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease, takes Sucralfate, and tells the nurse she has started taking OTC Aluminum Hydroxide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, should not be taken by a client who has a possible systemic fungal infection as it can worsen the infection. This combination can suppress the immune response, allowing the fungal infection to proliferate. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider regarding this potential contraindication to medication. The other options do not present a contraindication related to the medication interactions described in the question.
3. Which medication is a beta blocker?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Verapamil (Calan)
- C. Captopril (Capoten)
- D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.
4. When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, what should the healthcare provider monitor the client's urine for?
- A. Bilirubin
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring urine for calcium is essential. Somatropin can lead to increased calcium levels in the urine, potentially increasing the risk of renal calculi formation. Therefore, assessing for calcium in the urine helps in early detection and prevention of this complication. Monitoring for bilirubin, protein, or potassium in the urine is not directly related to the effects of Somatropin and would not provide relevant information in this context.
5. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your fluid intake.
- C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.
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