Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following drugs is associated with extreme photosensitivity as a reaction?

• A. Digitalis
• B. Niacin
• C. Tetracycline
• D. Fluoroquinolones

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tetracycline is known to cause extreme photosensitivity reactions, making individuals more sensitive to sunlight and increasing the risk of severe sunburn. It is essential for patients taking tetracycline to protect themselves from excessive sun exposure to prevent adverse reactions.

2. Which of the following is not a known effect of the drug Clozapine?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Antipsychotic
• C. Used for Schizophrenia
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine is associated with side effects like agranulocytosis (a serious blood condition), sedation (not hyperactivity), and is used as an antipsychotic to treat schizophrenia. Hyperactivity is not a typical effect of Clozapine, making it the correct answer in this context.

3. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
• B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
• C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
• D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.

4. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Increased TSH level
• B. Decreased ALT level
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels, can occur as an adverse effect of Ritonavir. Monitoring lipid levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect in clients taking this medication for HIV infection.

5. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• B. I will take this medication at bedtime.
• C. I will take this medication with a high-fat meal.
• D. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking Atenolol, a beta-blocker, should monitor their blood pressure regularly to ensure the medication is effectively managing their condition. Monitoring blood pressure helps in assessing the drug's effectiveness and identifying any potential side effects that may influence blood pressure levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Atenolol at bedtime, with a high-fat meal, or increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not recommended actions associated with this medication and do not demonstrate an understanding of the teaching.

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