Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client with a new prescription for Amlodipine, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• B. Avoid driving until you see how the medication affects you.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you develop a dry cough.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid driving until they understand the medication's effects. Amlodipine can cause dizziness, making it unsafe to drive until the client knows how the medication affects them. This instruction promotes client safety and prevents potential accidents due to medication side effects.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following side effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for and report?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Persistent cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine, a vasodilator, can cause reflex tachycardia, leading to an increased heart rate. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of the client's condition. Choice A (Orthostatic hypotension) is incorrect as Hydralazine is more likely to cause reflex tachycardia than orthostatic hypotension. Choice C (Dark-colored urine) and Choice D (Persistent cough) are unrelated to the common side effects of Hydralazine and should not be the focus of monitoring for this medication.

3. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Organic nitrates
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Beta blockers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

4. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Atropine
• C. Protamine
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.

5. A client is prescribed Atorvastatin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Creatine kinase
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Creatine kinase should be monitored in clients taking Atorvastatin as it can indicate muscle damage, a serious adverse effect of statins. Elevated creatine kinase levels can suggest myopathy or rhabdomyolysis, which are potential complications associated with statin therapy. Monitoring creatine kinase levels helps in early detection of muscle damage and guides appropriate management to prevent severe complications.

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