ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client in a coronary care unit is being admitted after CPR post cardiac arrest. The client is receiving IV lidocaine at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?
- A. Prevents dysrhythmias
- B. Slows intestinal motility
- C. Dissolves blood clots
- D. Relieves pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lidocaine is administered to prevent dysrhythmias by delaying conduction in the heart and reducing the automaticity of heart tissue. This action helps stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias post-cardiac arrest. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lidocaine is not used for slowing intestinal motility, dissolving blood clots, or relieving pain in this context.
2. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Nausea
- C. Constipation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is tinnitus. Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity, which may manifest as tinnitus. Tinnitus should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further hearing damage.
3. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if they take one tablet, wait 5 minutes, but still have Anginal pain. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. Take two more sublingual tablets at the same time.
- B. Call emergency services.
- C. Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule.
- D. Wait another 5 minutes then take a second sublingual tablet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: If anginal pain persists after taking the first tablet and waiting 5 minutes, the priority step is to call emergency services (911) and then take a second sublingual tablet. Persistent pain could indicate a myocardial infarction, and immediate medical attention is crucial. Taking two more tablets at the same time (Choice A) can lead to excessive vasodilation and hypotension. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule (Choice C) is not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute episode. Waiting another 5 minutes and then taking a second tablet (Choice D) is not advisable in this emergency situation where prompt action is necessary.
4. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Avoid salt substitutes.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Limit your fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.
5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.
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