ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should be considered? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Infants have a more rapid gastric emptying time.
- B. Infants have immature liver function.
- C. Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed.
- D. Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering medications to a 4-month-old infant, the pharmacokinetic principle to consider is that infants have immature liver function until 1 year of age. This requires medications metabolized by the liver to be administered in smaller dosages. While infants do have a more rapid gastric emptying time, immature liver function is a more critical pharmacokinetic consideration in this context. Additionally, although infants have a poorly developed blood-brain barrier, this relates more to pharmacodynamic effects rather than pharmacokinetic principles. The statement about infants having an increased ability to absorb topical medications is not directly related to pharmacokinetic principles, making choice B the correct answer.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?
- A. Name
- B. Dosage
- C. Route
- D. Frequency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?
- A. aPTT of 90 seconds
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
- C. INR of 1.0
- D. Hgb of 15 g/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.
4. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bevacizumab is known to potentially cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to detect and manage any elevations effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bevacizumab is not typically associated with causing hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or hypocalcemia. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is the priority in this case.
5. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?
- A. Dry oral mucous membranes
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
- D. Anorexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.
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