Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a prescription for Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin to treat a Peptic Ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take these medications with foo '
• B. These medications can turn your stool black.'
• C. These medications can cause photosensitivity.'
• D. The purpose of these medications is to decrease the pH of gastric juices in the stomach.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take these medications with food to reduce GI disturbances.

2. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. It is used to treat skin infections.
• B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
• C. It can lessen nasal congestion in the common cold.
• D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse and report any significant increases. Choice B, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Hydralazine. Choice C, Hyponatremia, and Choice D, Constipation, are also not typically associated with Hydralazine use.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Pain level
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.

5. A client with chronic renal disease is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review for an indication of a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. The leukocyte count
• B. The platelet count
• C. The hematocrit (Hct)
• D. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hematocrit (Hct). Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa because this medication stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic renal disease. The leukocyte count (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa.

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