Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Pain level
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client receiving an IV bolus of Morphine is the respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise early and intervene promptly. Assessing pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are also important but not the priority in this situation. Pain level can be assessed after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Blood pressure and level of consciousness should be monitored but do not take precedence over the respiratory rate when administering Morphine.

2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Other signs of Digoxin toxicity include vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion. Nausea can be an early indicator of toxicity and should be closely monitored by the nurse. Dry mouth and hypoglycemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus is more commonly associated with medications like aspirin or loop diuretics, not Digoxin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

4. A client is being taught about Terbutaline. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication will stop my contractions.
• B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
• C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
• D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. Therefore, the client demonstrating understanding by recognizing that the medication will stop contractions is the most accurate response. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Terbutaline is primarily used to inhibit contractions in preterm labor, not prevent vaginal bleeding, promote blood flow to the baby, or increase prostaglandin production.

5. A client has a new prescription for Phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin can lead to gingival hyperplasia, making oral hygiene crucial to prevent complications. Encouraging good oral care practices helps reduce the risk of adverse effects on the gums and teeth. Avoiding grapefruit juice is not specifically related to Phenytoin. While some medications require intake with food, Phenytoin is usually taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly associated with Phenytoin therapy.

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