ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. Before administering lithium to a client with bipolar disorder who has been taking the medication for 1 year, the nurse should check to see that which of the following tests has been completed?
- A. Thyroid hormone assay
- B. Liver function tests
- C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
- D. Brain natriuretic peptide
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the thyroid hormone assay. Long-term lithium use can result in thyroid dysfunction, making it crucial to monitor the client's thyroid function regularly to detect any abnormalities early and prevent potential complications. Liver function tests (choice B) are not specifically associated with lithium therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (choice C) is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not directly related to lithium therapy. Brain natriuretic peptide (choice D) is a test used to diagnose heart failure and is not relevant to monitoring lithium therapy.
2. When educating a client with a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage GERD, which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before meals.
- B. You may need to take this medication for a long time.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Expect immediate relief of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole should be taken before meals to ensure its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. This timing allows the medication to work on reducing acid secretion when the stomach is most actively producing it, leading to better control of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because not all patients with GERD need to take Omeprazole for the rest of their lives; the duration of treatment varies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase vitamin C intake while taking Omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect because Omeprazole may take a few days to start providing symptom relief, so immediate relief should not be expected.
3. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if they take one tablet, wait 5 minutes, but still have Anginal pain. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. Take two more sublingual tablets at the same time.
- B. Call emergency services.
- C. Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule.
- D. Wait another 5 minutes then take a second sublingual tablet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: If anginal pain persists after taking the first tablet and waiting 5 minutes, the priority step is to call emergency services (911) and then take a second sublingual tablet. Persistent pain could indicate a myocardial infarction, and immediate medical attention is crucial. Taking two more tablets at the same time (Choice A) can lead to excessive vasodilation and hypotension. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule (Choice C) is not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute episode. Waiting another 5 minutes and then taking a second tablet (Choice D) is not advisable in this emergency situation where prompt action is necessary.
4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. What instruction should be included by the nurse during discharge?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid sun exposure.
- D. Limit fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase intake of foods high in potassium. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. Increasing the intake of foods rich in potassium can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination. Choice C is irrelevant to the medication. Choice D is also incorrect as Furosemide is a diuretic and may require increased, not limited, fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
5. A healthcare provider is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
- B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 minutes.
- C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
- D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hours of manifestation onset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering IV Alteplase for a massive Pulmonary Embolism, the healthcare provider should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This is crucial to prevent bleeding complications at the puncture sites. Choice A is incorrect because Enoxaparin is not usually administered along with Alteplase for a Pulmonary Embolism. Choice C is incorrect because Aminocaproic acid is not typically given prior to alteplase infusion in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because Alteplase should be administered within 2 hours of onset of manifestations for Pulmonary Embolism, not within 8 hours.
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