when giving a patient lithium what is a life threatening side effect
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. When administering Lithium to a patient, what is a life-threatening side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with Lithium, a life-threatening side effect to watch out for is seizures. Lithium can lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures. Seizures are serious and necessitate prompt medical intervention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is not a common life-threatening side effect of Lithium. Pancreatitis can be a side effect of Lithium, but it is not typically life-threatening. Headache is a common side effect of Lithium, but it is not considered life-threatening.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not reduce the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate, increase platelet production, prevent bleeding, or potentiate the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate. Instead, Leucovorin works by rescuing healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate.

3. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because potassium supplements should only be taken if prescribed by a healthcare provider due to the risk of hyperkalemia with furosemide. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing sodium intake is generally a good dietary practice but not a specific instruction related to furosemide therapy.

4. Which of the following is not a common effect of Midazolam?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Midazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for its sedative, anxiolytic, and amnestic effects. While dizziness can be a side effect of Midazolam, it is not a primary or common effect. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it deviates from the typical effects associated with Midazolam.

5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

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