ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause a non-productive cough due to its effect on bradykinin levels. The client should be advised to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to consider alternative treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not typically associated with Enalapril use.
2. When caring for a client prescribed Lithium, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum lithium
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's serum lithium levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial because lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels outside this range can lead to toxicity, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, regular monitoring is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the medication's effectiveness.
3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with angina. Which vital sign would cause the healthcare professional to question administering this drug?
- A. Respirations 12 breaths per minute
- B. Pulse 52 beats per minute
- C. Blood pressure 134/72
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker medication that can lower heart rate. A pulse of 52 beats per minute is relatively low and administering atenolol could further decrease the heart rate, potentially leading to bradycardia. Monitoring the pulse rate and holding the medication if the pulse is below the prescribed parameters is crucial to prevent adverse effects such as bradycardia and hypotension.
4. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Drink 2 liters of water daily.
- B. Avoid taking the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Limit vitamin C intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take an iron supplement while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol is to drink 2 liters of water daily. This helps reduce the risk of kidney stones, a potential side effect of allopurinol use. Adequate hydration is essential to prevent kidney stone formation and maintain kidney function while taking this medication.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
- A. Administer subcutaneously in a large muscle mass to prevent injury.
- B. Ensure that the medication is kept at room temperature until just prior to administration.
- C. Invert vial gently to mix well before withdrawing dose.
- D. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.
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