Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. When caring for a client receiving treatment with irinotecan, which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is diarrhea. Irinotecan commonly causes diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring for diarrhea is essential to prevent dehydration and manage this side effect effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, ototoxicity, and neutropenia are not commonly associated with irinotecan therapy.

3. What is a common side effect that typically occurs with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine as a result of increased vasodilation?

• A. Abdominal cramps
• B. Calf pain
• C. Headache
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Headache is a common side effect associated with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to its vasodilatory properties. The vasodilation caused by Nitroglycerine leads to relaxation of blood vessels, including those in the head, which can result in headaches. This side effect is considered normal and is often transient, diminishing with continued use of the medication.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Relief of headache
• B. Relief of nausea
• C. Relief of abdominal pain
• D. Relief of heartburn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

5. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may suggest a potential serious condition that needs prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications. Flushing (choice A) is more commonly associated with other medications or conditions and is not a common side effect of docetaxel. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and tinnitus (choice D) are also not typically associated with docetaxel therapy and are not priority findings that the nurse should instruct the client to report.

Similar Questions