Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

3. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
• C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
• D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.

4. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
• B. Take this medication with food.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Clopidogrel is to avoid taking aspirin while on this medication. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs can potentiate the risk of bleeding, so they should be avoided while taking Clopidogrel to prevent adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Clopidogrel does not need to be taken with food, there is no specific dietary restriction related to potassium, and the timing of administration (bedtime) is not a critical instruction for this medication.

5. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

• A. Varicella vaccine
• B. Rubella vaccine
• C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
• D. Measles vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is safe for women to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine, which is recommended by healthcare providers to protect pregnant individuals from influenza. Vaccination with inactivated influenza vaccine during pregnancy not only provides protection to the pregnant individual but also confers passive immunity to the newborn during the vulnerable early months of life. The Varicella, Rubella, and Measles vaccines are live vaccines and are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause harm.

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