Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?

• A. Administer the prescribed dose.
• B. Withhold the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and inform the provider of the client's previous rash after taking penicillin. This history suggests a potential allergic reaction to penicillin, which can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis. Notifying the provider allows for an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed, considering the client's allergy to penicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering a medication that could potentially lead to a severe allergic reaction in the client. Administering the prescribed dose (Choice A) could be harmful due to the potential for an allergic reaction. Changing the prescription to an oral form (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of a potential penicillin allergy. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice D) without consulting the provider may not be sufficient to prevent a severe allergic reaction.

2. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide to treat heart failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. Sodium level
• C. Hemoglobin A1C
• D. BUN

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels when taking Furosemide because the medication can lead to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of Furosemide, a loop diuretic, due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Therefore, choices B (Sodium level), C (Hemoglobin A1C), and D (BUN) are incorrect as they are not directly influenced by Furosemide therapy for heart failure.

3. Following a stroke, a client has been started on clopidogrel (Plavix). Why is this medication being administered?

• A. To prevent stroke in high-risk patients, such as those with prosthetic heart valves
• B. To decrease blood pressure
• C. To increase heart rate
• D. To provide antiplatelet activity in patients who cannot tolerate aspirin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots. It is commonly used in patients who have had a stroke and cannot tolerate aspirin due to allergies or intolerances. Choosing clopidogrel in these cases helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of recurrent strokes.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider immediately?

• A. Lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL should be reported to the provider immediately. While a lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range, a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL could suggest early signs of kidney dysfunction, especially concerning in a client on long-term lithium therapy. It is crucial to monitor kidney function closely because lithium can be nephrotoxic over time. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function and should prompt immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Potassium and sodium levels within normal range are not immediate concerns when compared to potential kidney issues.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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