a nurse is preparing to administer an im dose of penicillin to a client who has a new prescription the client states she took penicillin 3 years ago a
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and inform the provider of the client's previous rash after taking penicillin. This history suggests a potential allergic reaction to penicillin, which can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis. Notifying the provider allows for an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed, considering the client's allergy to penicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering a medication that could potentially lead to a severe allergic reaction in the client. Administering the prescribed dose (Choice A) could be harmful due to the potential for an allergic reaction. Changing the prescription to an oral form (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of a potential penicillin allergy. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice D) without consulting the provider may not be sufficient to prevent a severe allergic reaction.

2. Which of the following is not related to drug toxicity of Atenolol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, is not typically associated with tachycardia. Instead, drug toxicity of Atenolol is more commonly linked to bradycardia due to its beta-blocking effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Symptoms of Atenolol toxicity may include heart failure (CHF), AV block, and a sedative appearance, but not tachycardia.

3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.

5. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods." Prednisone is associated with potassium depletion, making it important for clients to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent potential imbalances. Foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach are good sources of potassium. Choice B, "Avoid consuming grapefruit juice," is not directly related to Prednisone use. Choice C, "Take this medication with food," is a general instruction for many medications but not specific to Prednisone. Choice D, "Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods," is not directly related to Prednisone's side effects.

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