ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?
- A. Administer the prescribed dose.
- B. Withhold the medication.
- C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
- D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and inform the provider of the client's previous rash after taking penicillin. This history suggests a potential allergic reaction to penicillin, which can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis. Notifying the provider allows for an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed, considering the client's allergy to penicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering a medication that could potentially lead to a severe allergic reaction in the client. Administering the prescribed dose (Choice A) could be harmful due to the potential for an allergic reaction. Changing the prescription to an oral form (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of a potential penicillin allergy. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice D) without consulting the provider may not be sufficient to prevent a severe allergic reaction.
2. A client is being educated about Fluticasone for treating Perennial Rhinitis. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake.
- B. It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes maximum effect.
- C. This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness.
- D. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct! While the client may experience some benefits of Fluticasone within a few hours, the maximum effects may not be seen until up to 3 weeks of consistent use. This understanding is important to manage expectations and ensure the client uses the medication effectively for the treatment of Perennial Rhinitis.
3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.
4. A client with Schizophrenia is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of snacks to prevent weight loss.
- B. Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.
- C. Be aware of the possibility of mild seizures while taking this medication.
- D. Expect an increase in libido when taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to the client taking Risperidone for Schizophrenia is to notify the provider if they develop breast enlargement. Risperidone can lead to an increase in prolactin levels, causing gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report these manifestations to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing snack intake to prevent weight loss is not a specific concern related to Risperidone. Mild seizures are not a common side effect of Risperidone, so this instruction is unnecessary. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like decreased libido rather than an increase.
5. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Bevacizumab is known to cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not typically associated with bevacizumab treatment. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of bevacizumab. Choice D, hypocalcemia, is not a recognized side effect of bevacizumab.
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