ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Nephrotoxicity
- B. Hepatotoxicity
- C. Red Man Syndrome
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.
3. Which medication is used as a bronchodilator?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Lovastatin
- C. Albuterol
- D. Valproate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is the correct answer. It is a medication commonly used as a bronchodilator to treat conditions such as asthma. Albuterol works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, allowing better airflow and making breathing easier for individuals with respiratory conditions. Warfarin (Choice A) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, Lovastatin (Choice B) is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, and Valproate (Choice D) is used to treat seizures and bipolar disorder. These medications are not bronchodilators and are used for different medical conditions.
4. A client is receiving Gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for nephrotoxicity?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum creatinine.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is receiving Gentamicin, the nurse should monitor serum creatinine levels to assess for nephrotoxicity. Gentamicin is known to potentially cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps in early detection of any kidney damage or dysfunction. Serum sodium, serum potassium, and serum glucose levels are not directly related to nephrotoxicity caused by Gentamicin, so they are not the appropriate values to monitor in this case.
5. When teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for Desipramine, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the parents is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Constipation
- B. Suicidal thoughts
- C. Photophobia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is taking Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can lead to an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. The nurse should emphasize to the parents the importance of monitoring the child for any signs of worsening depression or suicidal ideation. Prompt reporting of such symptoms can help prevent harm to the child. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority adverse effects associated with Desipramine. While constipation, photophobia, and dry mouth can occur as side effects of Desipramine, they are not as critical as the risk of suicidal thoughts, which requires immediate attention to ensure the safety of the child.
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