Nursing Elites

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

2. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Swallow tablets on an empty stomach with plenty of water.
• B. Watch for skin rash and redness when applying calcitonin-salmon topically.
• C. Mix the liquid medication with juice and take it after meals.
• D. Alternate nostrils each time calcitonin-salmon is inhaled.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. To ensure optimal absorption, the client should alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication. This practice helps prevent irritation and promotes consistent drug delivery through both nostrils. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed as a tablet, applied topically, or mixed with juice; it is usually administered intranasally.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication undiluted.
• B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
• C. Administer the medication through a central line.
• D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Epoetin Alfa. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Platelet count.
• C. Hemoglobin.
• D. Serum potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the drug. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps evaluate the response to Epoetin Alfa treatment and ensures that the client's anemia is being appropriately managed.

5. When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, what adverse effect should they monitor for as instructed by the nurse?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyponatremia is a critical adverse effect associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. This medication is a diuretic that can lead to excessive loss of sodium and water from the body, potentially causing low sodium levels and resulting in hyponatremia. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, headache, weakness, and muscle cramps, is essential to prevent serious complications. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are also not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

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