Nursing Elites

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium levels. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Potassium levels should be closely monitored to prevent adverse effects. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. While magnesium and calcium are important electrolytes, potassium levels are more critical for Digoxin toxicity assessment.

3. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?

• A. INR of 4.0
• B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. BUN of 18 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health while on Warfarin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Neurotoxicity
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for symptoms such as peripheral neuropathy, muscle weakness, and tingling sensations is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia, neutropenia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with vincristine therapy.

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