Nursing Elites

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

2. Which of the following is commonly used to treat migraine headaches?

• A. Beta-blockers
• B. Cholinesterase Inhibitors
• C. ACE inhibitors
• D. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are often used in the management of migraine headaches due to their ability to help prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of migraines. They work by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, which can help in controlling migraine symptoms. While beta-blockers are also sometimes used in migraine prevention, anti-epileptic drugs are more commonly associated with migraine treatment. Cholinesterase Inhibitors are not typically used for migraine headaches, as they are more commonly associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease. ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, but they are not a first-line treatment for migraines.

3. When assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Mental status changes
• B. Tremor
• C. Jaundice
• D. Pneumonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that can occur in clients taking Gemfibrozil due to the potential development of liver impairment. Other symptoms of liver impairment may include anorexia and upper abdominal discomfort. Monitoring for signs of jaundice is crucial to detect and manage adverse effects of the medication promptly. Mental status changes (choice A) are not commonly associated with Gemfibrozil use. Tremor (choice B) is not a typical adverse reaction of Gemfibrozil. Pneumonia (choice D) is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use but can be a complication in some cases.

4. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid direct sunlight.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Expect urine to turn orange.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ciprofloxacin is to avoid direct sunlight. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, increasing the risk of sunburn. Clients should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and wear protective clothing, including hats and sunglasses when going outdoors to prevent skin damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ciprofloxacin with an antacid can reduce its absorption, so they should not be taken together. Increasing dairy product intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Ciprofloxacin. While Ciprofloxacin can discolor urine, turning it orange, this is not a critical side effect that requires specific instructions for the client.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

• A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
• B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
• C. A client with a history of hypertension
• D. A client with a history of anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots forming and leading to serious complications like pulmonary embolism. Clients with a history of deep-vein thrombosis are at a higher risk of recurrent thromboembolic events when taking tamoxifen, making it unsafe for such individuals. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy, as migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not directly interact with tamoxifen's mechanism of action or pose significant risks when used together.

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