Nursing Elites

1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium levels. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Potassium levels should be closely monitored to prevent adverse effects. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. While magnesium and calcium are important electrolytes, potassium levels are more critical for Digoxin toxicity assessment.

3. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Organic nitrates
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Beta blockers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.

4. A client has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors like Captopril. It is characterized by a decreased level of neutrophils, which are important in fighting infections. Monitoring the client's complete blood count (CBC) is crucial to detect neutropenia early. The nurse should also educate the client on recognizing signs of infection and promptly reporting them to the healthcare provider for timely intervention. Hypokalemia is a potential adverse effect of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Hypernatremia is an electrolyte imbalance more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of Captopril.

5. What are the Therapeutic Effects of Lithium?

• A. Prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes
• B. Maintenance of blood glucose
• C. Control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients
• D. Diminished seizure activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lithium is that it prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder. Lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder due to its ability to reduce the frequency and severity of manic episodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used for the maintenance of blood glucose, control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients, or to diminish seizure activity. These effects are not associated with the use of lithium as a medication.

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