ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.
2. A client has a new prescription for Losartan. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- B. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Losartan is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Losartan can lead to dehydration, so it is essential for the client to be vigilant for symptoms such as dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. Providing the instruction to monitor for signs of dehydration ensures the client's safety and helps in early identification of any potential issues related to dehydration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Losartan does not interact with grapefruit juice, does not require specific instructions regarding water intake, and does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of digoxin?
- A. Constipation
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of digoxin and can indicate toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is essential to prevent serious complications in clients taking digoxin.
4. When starting therapy with raloxifene, a client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Leg cramps
- B. Hot flashes
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Hair loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hot flashes. When initiating therapy with raloxifene, clients should be advised to monitor for hot flashes as they are a common adverse effect associated with this medication. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of raloxifene due to its action on estrogen receptors. Leg cramps (Choice A), urinary frequency (Choice C), and hair loss (Choice D) are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, monitoring for hot flashes is crucial to manage and address this common side effect appropriately.
5. How should a client prevent systemic absorption of Timolol eye drops according to the nurse's instructions?
- A. Bony orbit
- B. Nasolacrimal duct
- C. Conjunctival sac
- D. Outer canthus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique to prevent systemic absorption of eye drops is to press on the nasolacrimal duct while instilling them. By doing so, the lacrimal punctum gets temporarily blocked, reducing drainage into the nasolacrimal duct and systemic circulation. This method helps enhance the localized effect of the medication and decreases the risk of systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in preventing systemic absorption of the eye drops.
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