Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that increases cardiac output and slows heart rate?

• A. Heparin
• B. Alprazolam
• C. Digoxin
• D. Levothyroxine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digoxin is the correct answer. It is a medication known for its positive inotropic effects, which increase cardiac output, and negative chronotropic effects, which slow the heart rate. These effects are achieved by inhibiting the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in myocardial cells. Therefore, Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage conditions like heart failure and atrial fibrillation, where enhancing cardiac output and reducing heart rate are beneficial. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Heparin is an anticoagulant, Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety disorders, and Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement drug, none of which have the specified therapeutic effects on cardiac function.

2. What is the classification of furosemide?

• A. Loop diuretic
• B. Anticoagulant
• C. Iron supplement
• D. Anticonvulsant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).

3. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure weekly.
• C. Notify your provider if you develop a persistent cough.
• D. Avoid using salt substitutes to prevent hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to notify the provider if they develop a persistent cough. A persistent cough is a common adverse effect of Captopril and other ACE inhibitors. It is essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider promptly if this side effect occurs, as it may indicate a potentially serious issue that needs medical attention.

4. A client with a history of preterm labor is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will increase my daily fluid intake to 3 quarts.
• B. I can increase my activity now that I've started on this medication.
• C. I will report increasing intensity of contractions to my doctor.
• D. I am glad this will prevent preterm labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider because these are manifestations of preterm labor. This response demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of monitoring contractions and seeking appropriate medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, increasing activity, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor are not relevant actions in managing preterm labor or taking Terbutaline.

5. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

• A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
• B. Opioid, such as morphine
• C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
• D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

Similar Questions