ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. During the repair of a skin laceration, a client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?
- A. Seizures
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction following the administration of local anesthetics like Lidocaine. This adverse effect is important to monitor as it can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant in recognizing any signs of seizure activity to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
2. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?
- A. Salt substitutes
- B. Apples
- C. Chicken
- D. Bananas
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. The client should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, is a potential side effect of spironolactone, and ingesting additional potassium from salt substitutes can exacerbate this risk.
3. A client with Diabetes is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Lubiprostone
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Loperamide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metoclopramide, a dopamine antagonist, is indicated for treating nausea and increasing gastric motility. In the context of diabetic gastroparesis, it can alleviate bloating and nausea by enhancing gastric emptying. Lubiprostone (Choice A) is a chloride channel activator used for chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. Bisacodyl (Choice C) is a stimulant laxative primarily used for constipation. Loperamide (Choice D) is an anti-diarrheal agent and would not be appropriate for treating nausea and gastroparesis.
4. A client has a prescription for Phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing can help prevent or minimize this side effect. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not directly related to managing the side effects of Phenytoin. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice A) is not a specific instruction related to oral hygiene. Increasing calcium-rich foods intake (choice B) may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to preventing gingival hyperplasia. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice D) is not a necessary instruction for a client taking Phenytoin.
5. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam.
- B. Your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam.
- C. Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam.
- D. Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When taking colesevelam, it should be administered with food and at least 8 oz of water to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking colesevelam with food also helps in binding to bile acids efficiently. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary instruction for taking colesevelam correctly or monitoring specific side effects associated with this medication.
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