Nursing Elites

1. During the repair of a skin laceration, a client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Seizures
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction following the administration of local anesthetics like Lidocaine. This adverse effect is important to monitor as it can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant in recognizing any signs of seizure activity to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

2. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum sodium.
• D. Serum magnesium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.

3. A client has a prescription for Amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the nurse to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Serum sodium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect that can be monitored by checking the client's serum creatinine levels. Regular monitoring of serum creatinine helps in early identification of kidney damage and allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choice B, serum potassium, is not typically associated with adverse effects of Amphotericin B. Choice C, serum sodium, and choice D, serum calcium, are not directly affected by Amphotericin B and are not primary indicators of its adverse effects.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

5. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.

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