Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Mexiletine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Quinidine
• D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

2. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Methotrexate?

• A. Sarcomas
• B. Leukemias
• C. Ectopic pregnancy
• D. Rheumatic fever

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Methotrexate is not typically used to treat rheumatic fever, which is more commonly managed with antibiotics to eradicate the underlying infection. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of conditions like sarcomas, leukemias, and ectopic pregnancies due to its anti-inflammatory and anti-cancer properties.

3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

• A. I am constipated frequently.
• B. I have been urinating more frequently.
• C. My skin is peeling.
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.

4. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take furosemide in the morning.
• B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
• C. Avoid foods high in magnesium.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

5. A client has a new prescription for Tetracycline. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with milk.
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Expect urine to turn dark yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client prescribed Tetracycline is to 'Avoid prolonged sun exposure.' Tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to the sun's rays. This can lead to adverse reactions like sunburn or skin rashes. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to minimize sun exposure and wear protective clothing when outdoors. Choice A is incorrect because taking Tetracycline with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take Tetracycline at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as Tetracycline does not typically cause dark yellow urine.

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