Nursing Elites

1. In caring for a client who received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and presents with a pulse rate of 98/min and blood pressure of 74/44 mm Hg, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

• A. Calcium gluconate
• B. Sodium bicarbonate
• C. Potassium chloride
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing severe hypotension due to Verapamil administration. The appropriate medication to counteract the vasodilation caused by Verapamil and reverse severe hypotension is Calcium gluconate, which should be administered slowly IV. Therefore, the correct choice is Calcium gluconate (Choice A). Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not indicated for hypotension related to Verapamil use. Potassium chloride (Choice C) and Magnesium sulfate (Choice D) are not the appropriate medications to address the hypotension in this situation.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
• B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
• C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
• D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

3. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Limit your fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.

4. A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
• B. Expect your urine to turn orange.
• C. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication 30 minutes before chemotherapy.' Ondansetron, an antiemetic, should be taken before chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting. Taking it 30 minutes before chemotherapy ensures the medication is most effective in controlling chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Option B is unrelated to Ondansetron, option C is not necessary for this medication, and option D does not interact with Ondansetron but is relevant for other medications.

5. A client has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?

• A. Bruising
• B. Fever
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Rash

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Fever is a key symptom of serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with the use of serotonergic medications like Sertraline. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by a combination of symptoms, including fever, agitation, rapid heartbeat, sweating, shivering, tremors, and in severe cases, it can lead to seizures, coma, and even death. Bruising (Choice A), abdominal pain (Choice C), and rash (Choice D) are not typically associated with serotonin syndrome. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring for fever as an early sign of serotonin syndrome in clients taking Sertraline.

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