a nurse is caring for a client who received iv verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia svt the clients pulse rate is now 98min and his blood p
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. In caring for a client who received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and presents with a pulse rate of 98/min and blood pressure of 74/44 mm Hg, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing severe hypotension due to Verapamil administration. The appropriate medication to counteract the vasodilation caused by Verapamil and reverse severe hypotension is Calcium gluconate, which should be administered slowly IV. Therefore, the correct choice is Calcium gluconate (Choice A). Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not indicated for hypotension related to Verapamil use. Potassium chloride (Choice C) and Magnesium sulfate (Choice D) are not the appropriate medications to address the hypotension in this situation.

2. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia when receiving leuprolide as it can cause decreased testosterone levels, leading to the development of gynecomastia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because leuprolide actually decreases testosterone levels, which would not result in increased testosterone levels or libido. Leuprolide is not associated with hypoglycemia, so monitoring for this is unnecessary in a client receiving this medication.

3. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.

4. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

5. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should be identified as a contraindication to this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication due to the potential for worsening bronchoconstriction and exacerbating respiratory symptoms. Choice B, diabetes mellitus, is not a contraindication for Propranolol. Choice C, hypertension, is actually an indication for Propranolol as it is commonly used to treat hypertension. Choice D, glaucoma, is not a contraindication for Propranolol use.

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