a nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client the nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

2. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Escitalopram to treat generalized anxiety disorder. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing Escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms, so it is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions for gradual discontinuation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Escitalopram should not necessarily be taken with food, there is no direct correlation with blood sugar levels, and the medication should not be crushed before swallowing.

3. A client in a coronary care unit is being admitted after CPR post cardiac arrest. The client is receiving IV lidocaine at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lidocaine is administered to prevent dysrhythmias by delaying conduction in the heart and reducing the automaticity of heart tissue. This action helps stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias post-cardiac arrest. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lidocaine is not used for slowing intestinal motility, dissolving blood clots, or relieving pain in this context.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

5. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

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