Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Nephrotoxicity
• B. Hepatotoxicity
• C. Red Man Syndrome
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

2. A patient has been taking hydrocodone, an opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken more than the prescribed dose. What should you administer as the antidote if they experience toxicity?

• A. Naloxone
• B. N-acetylcysteine
• C. Atropine
• D. Digoxin immune Fab

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the specific antidote for opioid toxicity. It works by blocking the effects of opioids on the central nervous system, thereby reversing symptoms like respiratory depression and sedation. N-acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, while atropine is indicated for certain types of poisonings. Digoxin immune Fab is used for digoxin toxicity. Therefore, in the case of opioid toxicity due to hydrocodone overdose, naloxone is the appropriate antidote.

3. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Atropine
• C. Protamine
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.

4. Which of the following is not directly related to drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

• A. Headaches
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Projectile vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headaches, tachycardia, and dizziness are common side effects of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory properties. Projectile vomiting is not typically associated with nitroglycerin toxicity, making it the correct answer. Therefore, option D is the correct choice.

5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication, which can potentiate its effects, potentially causing adverse reactions like hypotension and bradycardia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Verapamil at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to its metabolism or side effects. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to Verapamil use. Increasing potassium-rich foods intake is not necessary with Verapamil and could potentially lead to hyperkalemia in some cases.

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