Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.75 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 1 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL, which is rounded up to 0.8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 0.8 mL per dose of heparin. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect as it is the exact calculated volume but needs to be rounded up. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculated volume for the desired dose of heparin.

2. A client with chronic myeloid leukemia is receiving hydroxyurea. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving hydroxyurea. Neutropenia is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. It is essential to assess the client's white blood cell count regularly to detect neutropenia early and prevent complications such as infections.

3. When educating a client with a new prescription for Amlodipine, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• B. Avoid driving until you see how the medication affects you.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you develop a dry cough.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid driving until they understand the medication's effects. Amlodipine can cause dizziness, making it unsafe to drive until the client knows how the medication affects them. This instruction promotes client safety and prevents potential accidents due to medication side effects.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

5. What is a severe adverse effect of iron supplementation?

• A. Seizures
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Edema
• D. Serotonin syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe adverse effect of iron supplementation is seizures. Iron toxicity can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, lethargy, and in severe cases, seizures. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to follow recommended dosages to prevent adverse effects.

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