Nursing Elites

1. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?

• A. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• B. Draw a peak level 90 min prior to administering the medication and a trough level 90 min after the dose.
• C. Draw a trough level immediately prior to administering the medication and a peak level 30 min after the dose.
• D. Draw a peak level at 0900 and a trough level at 2100.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

2. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? (Select all that apply.)

• A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asks for an Influenza immunization
• B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection
• C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone
• D. A client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease, takes Sucralfate, and tells the nurse she has started taking OTC Aluminum Hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, should not be taken by a client who has a possible systemic fungal infection as it can worsen the infection. This combination can suppress the immune response, allowing the fungal infection to proliferate. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider regarding this potential contraindication to medication. The other options do not present a contraindication related to the medication interactions described in the question.

3. A client is undergoing preparation for extensive colorectal surgery. Which of the following oral antibiotics should be administered to suppress normal flora in the GI tract?

• A. Kanamycin
• B. Gentamicin
• C. Neomycin
• D. Tobramycin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neomycin. Neomycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is administered orally before GI surgery to eliminate the normal flora in the large intestine. This helps reduce the risk of postoperative infections by decreasing the bacterial load in the gut. Choices A, B, and D (Kanamycin, Gentamicin, Tobramycin) are not typically used to suppress normal flora in the GI tract before colorectal surgery.

4. An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
• B. Check your temperature daily.
• C. Take this medication in the morning.
• D. Add extra calories to your diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because checking temperature daily, taking the medication in the morning, and adding extra calories to the diet are not specifically related to minimizing the adverse effect of photophobia caused by Clomipramine.

5. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should assess the client for swelling in the lower extremities, a common manifestation of this side effect. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Hypertension (Choice D) is the condition for which Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

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