ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.
2. A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a prescription for Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin to treat a Peptic Ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take these medications with foo '
- B. These medications can turn your stool black.'
- C. These medications can cause photosensitivity.'
- D. The purpose of these medications is to decrease the pH of gastric juices in the stomach.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take these medications with food to reduce GI disturbances.
3. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Disorganized speech.
- B. Bizarre behavior.
- C. Impaired social interactions.
- D. Hallucinations.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.
4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Ketamine
- B. Naltrexone
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Fluvoxamine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.
5. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- C. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that should be tapered off gradually to prevent rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. Abruptly stopping Metoprolol can lead to serious complications, so it is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on discontinuation. Choice A is incorrect because Metoprolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol is not typically associated with causing hyperglycemia. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods specifically due to taking Metoprolol.
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