Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Somatropin to stimulate growth. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Somatropin is known to cause hyperglycemia as a common adverse effect. Therefore, the client should be instructed to monitor for elevated blood glucose levels closely while taking this medication to ensure early detection and management of hyperglycemia.

2. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum sodium.
• D. Serum magnesium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.

3. What is the action of Metformin?

• A. Decreasing intestinal glucose absorption
• B. Increasing sensitivity to insulin
• C. Decreasing hepatic glucose production
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin exerts its effects by decreasing hepatic glucose production, increasing sensitivity to insulin, and decreasing intestinal glucose absorption. These actions help in lowering blood glucose levels and improving insulin sensitivity in individuals with diabetes.

4. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

5. A client with Bipolar disorder has a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy.
• B. Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet.
• C. You will need to have a complete blood count and carbamazepine levels drawn periodically.
• D. Notify your provider if you develop a rash.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet." Grapefruit juice affects carbamazepine metabolism and should be avoided. It can lead to increased levels of the medication, potentially causing toxicity. Monitoring carbamazepine blood levels and the complete blood count (CBC) is essential to ensure the medication's efficacy and safety. Although choice A is incorrect (This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy), carbamazepine is classified as a Pregnancy Category D drug, which means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk. Choice D (Notify your provider if you develop a rash) is also important because carbamazepine can cause serious adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring and prompt reporting of any rash are crucial. Therefore, choices C and D are also relevant instructions for the client.

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