Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client receiving treatment with irinotecan, which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is diarrhea. Irinotecan commonly causes diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring for diarrhea is essential to prevent dehydration and manage this side effect effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, ototoxicity, and neutropenia are not commonly associated with irinotecan therapy.

2. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased fasting blood glucose
• C. Decreased hemoglobin A1C
• D. Decreased polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.

3. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

• A. Proximal convoluted tubule
• B. Loop of Henle
• C. Collecting duct
• D. Distal convoluted tubule

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

4. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?

• A. 1000
• B. 1030
• C. 1100
• D. 1130

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.

5. What instruction should the healthcare provider include to minimize an adverse effect of Clomipramine for OCD in an adolescent client?

• A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
• B. Check your temperature daily.
• C. Take this medication in the morning.
• D. Add extra calories to your diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear sunglasses when outdoors.' To minimize the anticholinergic effect of Clomipramine, the client should wear sunglasses when outdoors to reduce photophobia. This adverse effect is common with tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Checking temperature daily, timing of medication intake, or adding extra calories to the diet are not directly related to minimizing adverse effects of Clomipramine.

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