ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. When caring for a client receiving treatment with irinotecan, which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Neutropenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is diarrhea. Irinotecan commonly causes diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring for diarrhea is essential to prevent dehydration and manage this side effect effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, ototoxicity, and neutropenia are not commonly associated with irinotecan therapy.
2. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.
3. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
- C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.
4. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?
- A. 45 minutes to 18 hours
- B. 30 minutes to 12 hours
- C. 90 minutes to 36 hours
- D. 60 minutes to 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.
5. A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.
- A. H
- B. ACE inhibitor
- C. Antifungal
- D. Beta agonist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Drugs ending in the suffix -azole are commonly associated with antifungal medications. Examples include fluconazole, ketoconazole, and itraconazole. These medications are used to treat fungal infections by inhibiting the growth of fungi. Therefore, the correct answer is option C, 'Antifungal'. Options A, B, and D do not accurately describe drugs ending in -azole.
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