a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for atenolol which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor f
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing down the heart rate. An adverse effect of atenolol is bradycardia, characterized by a slower than normal heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of bradycardia, such as a slow heart rate, while taking atenolol. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for bradycardia. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected adverse effect of atenolol as it actually reduces heart rate. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is not a typical adverse effect of atenolol. Hypertension (Choice D) is not an adverse effect of atenolol, as atenolol is commonly used to manage hypertension.

2. A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

4. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client with brain cancer experiencing headaches. Which of the following adjuvant medications is indicated for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer experiencing headaches as it decreases inflammation and swelling. It is commonly used to reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor. Methylphenidate (Choice B) is a central nervous system stimulant used in conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy, not for brain cancer headaches. Hydroxyzine (Choice C) is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not indicated for brain cancer headaches. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis, but not typically indicated for brain cancer headaches.

5. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

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