Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing down the heart rate. An adverse effect of atenolol is bradycardia, characterized by a slower than normal heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of bradycardia, such as a slow heart rate, while taking atenolol. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for bradycardia. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected adverse effect of atenolol as it actually reduces heart rate. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is not a typical adverse effect of atenolol. Hypertension (Choice D) is not an adverse effect of atenolol, as atenolol is commonly used to manage hypertension.

2. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

3. While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thromboembolic stroke
• C. Iron deficiency anemia
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
• B. Change the IV infusion site.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
• D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.

5. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication before bedtime.
• D. Take this medication every other day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication with the first bite of food helps in achieving optimal effectiveness and minimizes the risk of side effects like nausea or upset stomach. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for taking Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is usually taken daily, not every other day.

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