Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing down the heart rate. An adverse effect of atenolol is bradycardia, characterized by a slower than normal heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of bradycardia, such as a slow heart rate, while taking atenolol. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for bradycardia. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected adverse effect of atenolol as it actually reduces heart rate. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is not a typical adverse effect of atenolol. Hypertension (Choice D) is not an adverse effect of atenolol, as atenolol is commonly used to manage hypertension.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the provider instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Loratadine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with Warfarin due to its antiplatelet effects. The combination of Warfarin, an anticoagulant, and NSAIDs can potentiate the risk of bleeding complications. Clients on Warfarin should avoid NSAIDs like ibuprofen and opt for alternative pain relief options such as acetaminophen. Diphenhydramine and loratadine are antihistamines and are generally safe to use with Warfarin as they do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when compared to NSAIDs like ibuprofen.

3. A client asks the nurse to explain the difference between stable and unstable angina. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "Stable angina is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. Unstable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
• B. "Unstable angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries. Stable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
• C. "Unstable angina is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. Stable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
• D. "Stable angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries. Unstable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stable angina is typically triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress and is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by angina episodes that are unexpected, more severe, prolonged, and can occur at rest. Understanding these differences can help healthcare providers assess and manage angina episodes effectively, ensuring appropriate interventions are implemented promptly based on the type of angina present.

4. A client is undergoing preparation for extensive colorectal surgery. Which of the following oral antibiotics should be administered to suppress normal flora in the GI tract?

• A. Kanamycin
• B. Gentamicin
• C. Neomycin
• D. Tobramycin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neomycin. Neomycin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is administered orally before GI surgery to eliminate the normal flora in the large intestine. This helps reduce the risk of postoperative infections by decreasing the bacterial load in the gut. Choices A, B, and D (Kanamycin, Gentamicin, Tobramycin) are not typically used to suppress normal flora in the GI tract before colorectal surgery.

5. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

• A. Cefaclor
• B. Cefazolin
• C. Cefepime
• D. Cephalexin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

Similar Questions