Nursing Elites

1. What are the actions of the drug metformin?

• A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption
• B. Increases sensitivity to insulin
• C. Short-term sedation
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metformin has dual actions by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption, which helps in reducing blood glucose levels. Additionally, it increases sensitivity to insulin, aiding in its proper utilization within the body. Choice A is correct as metformin acts by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption. Choice B is also correct as metformin increases sensitivity to insulin. Choice C, short-term sedation, is incorrect as metformin is not known for causing sedation. Therefore, the correct answer is D because metformin performs both of these actions.

2. When instructing a client with a new prescription for Timolol on how to insert eye drops, which area should the nurse instruct the client to press on to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?

• A. Bony orbit
• B. Nasolacrimal duct
• C. Conjunctival sac
• D. Outer canthus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct, located near the inner corner of the eye, blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents the medication from entering the systemic circulation. This technique helps to ensure the medication stays localized in the eye, enhancing its therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The bony orbit is the eye socket and not a site to press for preventing systemic absorption. The conjunctival sac is where eye drops are instilled, not pressed on. The outer canthus is also not the correct area to press to prevent systemic absorption.

3. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

4. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the nurse tell the client to expect before beginning this medication?

• A. Skin test for allergy to the medication
• B. ECG to rule out cardiac dysrhythmias
• C. Mantoux test to rule out exposure to tuberculosis
• D. Liver function tests to assess risk for medication toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting Calcitonin-salmon, it is important to assess for any potential allergies as anaphylaxis can occur. A skin test is usually conducted to determine if the client is allergic to the medication. The nurse should also inquire about any previous allergies to fish, as Calcitonin-salmon is derived from salmon. Options B, C, and D are not necessary before initiating Calcitonin-salmon therapy. ECG is not directly related to this medication, Mantoux test is used to diagnose tuberculosis, and liver function tests are not specifically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon.

5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Apples
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Clients prescribed spironolactone should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium. Increased potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of spironolactone.

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