ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client's serum Calcium is 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Calcitonin-salmon
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Zoledronic acid
- D. Ibandronate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range. In this case, the appropriate medication to anticipate administering is Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected reference range.
2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor for and report to the provider?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Pedal edema
- C. Bruising
- D. Yellow-tinged vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of digoxin, which may indicate toxicity. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any further complications. Dry cough is not typically associated with digoxin use. Pedal edema is a common symptom of heart failure, which digoxin is prescribed to manage. Bruising is not a common adverse effect of digoxin.
3. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Absolute neutrophil count
- C. Platelet count
- D. Total white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Oprelvekin is a medication that stimulates platelet production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count is essential to assess the effectiveness of this drug. The expected outcome for oprelvekin therapy is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Changes in platelet count can indicate the response to the medication and help in adjusting the treatment plan accordingly. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not directly related to the mechanism of action of Oprelvekin and therefore would not provide accurate information on the drug's effectiveness.
4. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application.
- B. Avoid blinking immediately after instilling the drops.
- C. Keep your eyes closed for 5 minutes after application.
- D. Administer the drops directly onto the cornea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.
5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.
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