Nursing Elites

1. What is the therapeutic action of Phenytoin?

• A. Antidiabetic
• B. Anticonvulsant
• C. Mood stabilizer
• D. Antianxiety agent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used as an anticonvulsant to prevent and control seizures. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, making it effective in managing conditions like epilepsy. Antidiabetic medications are used to regulate blood sugar levels, mood stabilizers help manage mood disorders, and antianxiety agents are used to reduce anxiety symptoms, none of which are the primary therapeutic action of Phenytoin.

2. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Sedation
• B. Nasal congestion
• C. Productive cough
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare professional should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is pregnant
• B. A client who has osteoarthritis
• C. A client who has a kidney stone
• D. A client who has a urinary tract infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy as it can induce labor and potentially lead to harm to the fetus. Therefore, it should not be used in pregnant clients due to its uterotonic effects. For clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stone, or urinary tract infection, Misoprostol is not contraindicated specifically for these conditions.

4. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

5. A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid grapefruit juice.
• C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
• D. Monitor heart rate daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

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