ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Hypovolemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Agitation
- D. Headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.
2. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim, and a nurse is providing teaching on monitoring adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bone pain
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone pain. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for bone pain since it is a common adverse effect of filgrastim. This occurs due to increased bone marrow activity stimulated by the medication.
3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?
- A. Reduced cardiac function
- B. First-pass effect
- C. Reduced hepatic function
- D. Increased gastric motility
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This situation can result in increased drug levels in the body, causing drowsiness and other side effects. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary to prevent such adverse effects in older adult clients. Choice A, reduced cardiac function, is not directly related to the metabolism of the medication and is unlikely to cause drowsiness. Choice B, first-pass effect, refers to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before it enters circulation, but it is not the cause of drowsiness in this scenario. Choice D, increased gastric motility, does not play a significant role in the metabolism of the medication and is not a likely cause of the client's drowsiness.
4. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?
- A. Seizures
- B. Hypotension
- C. Insomnia
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.
5. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin, and a healthcare provider is providing education. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider instruct the client to report?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Nausea
- C. Constipation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report tinnitus, as it can be an indication of ototoxicity, an adverse effect associated with cisplatin therapy. Ototoxicity is damage to the inner ear structures that can lead to hearing loss, making it crucial for the client to report any early signs such as tinnitus to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in the context of cisplatin therapy. Nausea and constipation are common side effects of cisplatin but are not typically indicative of serious complications requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is not a typical side effect associated with cisplatin therapy and is less likely to be related to the medication.
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