Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Hypovolemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Agitation
• D. Headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.

2. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Dexamethasone?

• A. Inflammation
• B. Asthma
• C. Addison’s disease
• D. Wilson’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dexamethasone is not used to treat Wilson’s disease. It is a corticosteroid primarily used for conditions like inflammation, asthma, and Addison’s disease. Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder involving copper accumulation and is treated with medications like chelating agents or zinc salts, not Dexamethasone.

3. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?

• A. Regular insulin
• B. Furosemide
• C. Valproic acid
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.

4. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Black-colored stools
• C. Staining of teeth
• D. Body secretions turning a red-orange color

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

5. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.

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