a nurse is assessing a client who takes desmopressin for diabetes insipidus for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.

2. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

3. While reviewing a client's medical history, a healthcare professional notes a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a visual disturbance associated with Digoxin toxicity, often accompanied by other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and confusion. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin, while elevated blood pressure and ringing in the ears are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is yellow-tinged vision as a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity.

4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Nitrofurantoin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitrofurantoin should be taken with food to enhance absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Taking it with a meal or a snack can help minimize stomach upset. Instructing the client to take the medication with food ensures optimal effectiveness and tolerability of the drug. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between Nitrofurantoin and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as there is no requirement to take Nitrofurantoin at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Nitrofurantoin.

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