a nurse is assessing a client who takes desmopressin for diabetes insipidus for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

3. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

4. What is the classification for the drug valproate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Valproate is classified as an anticonvulsant. It is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain. Therefore, the correct classification for valproate is as an anticonvulsant. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because valproate is not used to treat diabetes, ulcers, or hypertension.

5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for Vitamin B12 injections. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.' Clients with conditions like pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may require lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation to prevent deficiency. This is because their bodies are unable to absorb B12 from dietary sources adequately, necessitating ongoing injections to maintain optimal B12 levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A full glass of water is not necessary for Vitamin B12 injections. Metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of Vitamin B12 injections, and there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products specifically in relation to Vitamin B12 injections.

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