ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Cough
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes this cough as an adverse effect. It is important for the client to monitor for this symptom and notify their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated adverse effects of Lisinopril.
2. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum lithium
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.
3. When should a patient taking omeprazole be administered the medication?
- A. Before bedtime
- B. After dinner
- C. In the morning on an empty stomach
- D. With the patient's lunch meal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole should be administered in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. This timing is important as omeprazole works best when taken before a meal to inhibit acid production by the stomach. Taking it on an empty stomach in the morning allows the medication to be absorbed efficiently and provides optimal therapeutic effects throughout the day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking omeprazole before bedtime, after dinner, or with lunch may not allow the medication to work effectively as it requires an empty stomach for better absorption and action.
4. A client in a coronary care unit is being admitted after CPR post cardiac arrest. The client is receiving IV lidocaine at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?
- A. Prevents dysrhythmias
- B. Slows intestinal motility
- C. Dissolves blood clots
- D. Relieves pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lidocaine is administered to prevent dysrhythmias by delaying conduction in the heart and reducing the automaticity of heart tissue. This action helps stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias post-cardiac arrest. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lidocaine is not used for slowing intestinal motility, dissolving blood clots, or relieving pain in this context.
5. When administering IV Amphotericin B to a client with a systemic fungal infection, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Constipation
- C. Fever
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is fever. Amphotericin B is known to cause adverse effects such as fever, chills, and nausea during infusion. Monitoring for fever is essential as it can indicate an adverse reaction. To manage these effects, pretreatment with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen can be administered.
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